Nokea
Three days after having a pelvic exenteration procedure, a client suddenly complains of a 'giving' sensation along her abdominal incision. You check under the dressing and find that the wound edges are open and loops of intestine are protruding. Which action should you take first?
- A. Call the client's surgeon and report that wound evisceration has occurred.
- B. Cover the wound with saline-soaked dressings.
- C. Don sterile gloves and gently replace the intestine back in the wound.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure and heart rate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Covering the exposed tissue with saline-soaked dressings prevents drying and reduces risk of further complications.
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Which is true of prostate cancer?
- A. It is commonly lethal.
- B. It is one of the less common forms of cancer.
- C. Family history does not appear to be a risk factor.
- D. Ethnicity is a risk factor.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ethnicity is a risk factor for prostate cancer. African American men have a higher risk compared to other ethnicities. This is supported by research and epidemiological studies. Choice A is incorrect as prostate cancer, when detected early, has a high survival rate. Choice B is also incorrect as prostate cancer is one of the most common cancers in men. Choice C is incorrect as having a family history of prostate cancer is a known risk factor.
Paraurethral (Skene’s) glands secrete
- A. Estrogen
- B. Mucus
- C. Testosterone
- D. Androgens
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The paraurethral (Skene's) glands are responsible for secreting mucus to facilitate lubrication during sexual arousal. This mucus aids in lubricating the urethra and providing moisture for sexual intercourse. Estrogen (Choice A) is a hormone produced by the ovaries and not directly related to the function of Skene's glands. Testosterone (Choice C) and androgens (Choice D) are male sex hormones and are not involved in the secretion of mucus by Skene's glands. Therefore, the correct answer is B, mucus, as it aligns with the known function of the paraurethral glands.
Which finding from the nurse’s physical assessment of a 42-yr-old male patient should be reported to the health care provider?
- A. One testis hangs lower than the other.
- B. Genital hair distribution is diamond shaped
- C. Clear discharge is present at the penile meatus.
- D. Inguinal lymph nodes are nonpalpable bilaterally.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because palpable inguinal lymph nodes could indicate an underlying infection or malignancy, requiring further evaluation by the healthcare provider. This finding is concerning and needs attention.
A: One testis hanging lower than the other is a normal variation and does not typically require reporting.
B: Genital hair distribution being diamond-shaped is a common pattern and is not an abnormal finding that necessitates reporting.
C: Clear discharge at the penile meatus could be normal or due to benign conditions such as urethral irritation, so it may not require immediate reporting unless other concerning symptoms are present.
Which of the following are all components of sperm?
- A. acrosome, flagellum, nucleus
- B. codpiece, flagellum, midpiece
- C. nucleus, seminal vesicles, mitochondria
- D. DNA, flagellum, efferent ductules
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acrosome, flagellum, nucleus. The acrosome contains enzymes for penetrating the egg. The flagellum is the tail for movement. The nucleus contains genetic material. Choice B is incorrect because a codpiece is a protective garment and not a component of sperm. Choice C is incorrect because seminal vesicles and mitochondria are not components of sperm. Choice D is incorrect because efferent ductules are part of the male reproductive system, not a component of sperm.
The pituitary FSH controls:
- A. the maturation of the ovarian follicles;
- B. the estrogen secretion;
- C. ovulation;
- D. the progesterone secretion;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pituitary FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) controls the maturation of ovarian follicles by stimulating their growth and development. FSH plays a crucial role in the early stages of the menstrual cycle. Estrogen secretion is primarily regulated by the ovaries, not FSH. Ovulation is mainly triggered by the surge in LH (Luteinizing Hormone) levels, not FSH. Progesterone secretion is mainly controlled by the corpus luteum, which forms after ovulation, not directly by FSH. Therefore, the correct answer is A as FSH directly influences the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles.