Nokea
To avoid a perineal tear the obstetrician cuts the perineum posteriorly before delivery. This process is called
- A. Perineorrhaphy
- B. Episiotomy
- C. Cesarean section
- D. Tubal ligation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening and prevent severe perineal tears. This procedure is performed to facilitate the delivery of the baby and reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Perineorrhaphy (A) is a surgical repair of a perineal tear or episiotomy after childbirth, not the procedure of making the incision. Cesarean section (C) is a surgical procedure to deliver a baby through an incision in the mother's abdomen and uterus, not related to perineal tears. Tubal ligation (D) is a permanent form of female sterilization by blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy, not relevant to perineal tears during childbirth.
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The endocrine role of the testicle:
- A. occurs at the level of the interstitial cells;
- B. consists in the secretion of androgenic hormones;
- C. consists in the secretion of testosterone;
- D. determines the maturation of the sex organs;
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the endocrine role of the testicle primarily involves the secretion of testosterone. Testosterone is the main androgenic hormone produced by the testicles, which plays a crucial role in various physiological functions such as the development of male reproductive organs, sperm production, and secondary sexual characteristics.
Choice A is incorrect because while interstitial cells (Leydig cells) are involved in the production of testosterone, the endocrine role of the testicle is not limited to these cells alone.
Choice B is incorrect as it is too general. While androgenic hormones are indeed secreted by the testicles, testosterone specifically is the main androgenic hormone produced by them.
Choice D is incorrect as the maturation of sex organs is primarily regulated by the action of testosterone but is not the sole endocrine role of the testicle.
Birth control pills containing combinations of synthetic estrogen and progesterone compounds given for the first 21 days of the menstrual cycle are effective in preventing pregnancy. What is the explanation for their efficacy?
- A. Prevention of the preovulatory surge of luteinizing hormone secretion from the pituitary gland
- B. Prevention of development of the ovarian follicles
- C. Suppressing function of the corpus luteum soon after it forms
- D. Prevention of normal development of the endometrium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Birth control pills containing estrogen and progesterone prevent the preovulatory surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) secretion from the pituitary gland. This leads to the inhibition of ovulation, preventing the release of an egg from the ovary. Without ovulation, fertilization cannot occur, effectively preventing pregnancy.
Choice B is incorrect because birth control pills do not prevent the development of ovarian follicles; they prevent ovulation. Choice C is incorrect because suppressing the function of the corpus luteum is not the primary mechanism of action of birth control pills. Choice D is incorrect because birth control pills do not prevent the normal development of the endometrium; they primarily prevent ovulation.
Which of the following reasons would make a client who was treated successfully for a chlamydia infection at a greater risk for acquiring AIDS?
- A. The tissue irritation may be permanent, despite successful eradication of the bacteria.
- B. The immune system is already compromised.
- C. The bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis causes AIDS.
- D. The bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis continues to live inside the cells it has infected.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Having had an STI indicates existing vulnerabilities in the immune system, increasing susceptibility to HIV/AIDS.
The nurse monitors a client who has gone through an endoscopic examination. Following a culdoscopy, what does a nurse need to observe for in this client?
- A. The nurse observes the client for any discomfort in the shoulders.
- B. The nurse observes the client for the signs of internal bleeding and the symptoms of shock.
- C. The nurse observes the client for changes in skin color and for any rise in body temperature.
- D. The nurse observes the quantity and frequency of urinary output.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Discomfort in the shoulders is a common side effect after culdoscopy due to gas insufflation.
The accessory glands of the male reproductive system are:
- A. corpus spongiosum;
- B. corpus cavernosum;
- C. penis;
- D. seminal vesicles;
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: seminal vesicles. Seminal vesicles are accessory glands that produce a significant portion of the fluid that makes up semen. They contribute nutrients and substances that support sperm viability and motility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are structures of the penis involved in erection and urination, not accessory glands of the male reproductive system.