Nokea
Unilateral rhinitis could be caused by all of the following except:
- A. A foreign body in the nasal canal
- B. A nasal polyp
- C. Drug-induced rhinitis
- D. A deviated septum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A deviated septum. Unilateral rhinitis typically refers to inflammation in one nostril. A deviated septum is a physical obstruction in the nasal passage that affects both nostrils, not just one. Choices A, B, and C can all cause unilateral rhinitis as they specifically affect one side of the nasal passage. A foreign body in the nasal canal, a nasal polyp, and drug-induced rhinitis can all lead to inflammation and symptoms in one nostril.
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You are obtaining an arterial blood gas in the radial artery on a retired cab driver who has been hospitalized in the intensive care unit for a stroke. You are concerned about the possibility of arterial insufficiency. You perform the Allen test. This means that you:
- A. Checked for patency of the radial artery
- B. Checked for patency of the brachial artery
- C. Checked for patency of the ulnar artery
- D. Checked for patency of the femoral artery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Allen test assesses collateral circulation by checking for patency of the ulnar artery. This is important before obtaining an arterial blood gas from the radial artery to ensure adequate blood flow and prevent ischemia. If the ulnar artery is not patent, using the radial artery could lead to arterial insufficiency. Checking the radial artery's patency (Choice A) is not the purpose of the Allen test. Checking the patency of the brachial artery (Choice B) or the femoral artery (Choice D) is not relevant in this context. The correct answer is C because ensuring ulnar artery patency is crucial for arterial blood gas sampling from the radial artery.
A 19-year-old college student, Todd, is brought to your clinic by his mother. She is concerned that there is something seriously wrong with him. She states for the past 6 months his behavior has become peculiar and he has flunked out of college. Todd denies any recent illness or injuries. His past medical history is remarkable only for a broken foot. His parents are both healthy. He has a paternal uncle who had similar symptoms in college. The patient admits to smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol. He also admits to marijuana use but none in the last week. He denies using any other substances. He denies any feelings of depression or anxiety. While speaking with Todd and his mother you do a complete physical examination, which is essentially normal. When you question him on how he is feeling, he says that he is very worried that Microsoft has stolen his software for creating a better browser. He tells you he has seen a black van in his neighborhood at night and he is sure that it is full of computer tech workers stealing his work through special gamma waves. You ask him why he believes they are trying to steal his programs. He replies that the technicians have been telepathing their intents directly into his head. He says he hears these conversations at night so he knows this is happening. Todd's mother then tells you, "See, I told you . . . he's crazy. What do I do about it?" While arranging for a psychiatry consult, what psychotic disorder do you think Todd has?
- A. Schizoaffective disorder
- B. Psychotic disorder due to a medical illness
- C. Substance-induced psychotic disorder
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Schizophrenia. Todd presents with a history of peculiar behavior, academic decline, paranoid delusions, and auditory hallucinations. These are classic symptoms of schizophrenia, a chronic and severe mental disorder. Schizoaffective disorder (A) involves a mix of schizophrenia symptoms and mood disturbances, but Todd does not exhibit significant mood symptoms. Psychotic disorder due to a medical illness (B) would require evidence of a medical condition causing Todd's symptoms, which is not present. Substance-induced psychotic disorder (C) would require Todd's symptoms to be solely due to substance use, but his symptoms persist despite marijuana abstinence. Therefore, based on Todd's symptoms and history, the most likely diagnosis is schizophrenia.
Mr. Hunter, a 69-year-old man, complains of urinary frequency and urgency that have increased over the past several months. There is no dysuria, hematuria, or sensation of incomplete voiding. He drinks 2 cups of coffee daily and diet cola multiple times a day. His International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) is 6, with a bother score of 1 indicating mild voiding symptoms with low impact on his quality of life. His medical history includes hypertension, coronary artery disease, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Current medications are aspirin, metoprolol, and hydrochlorothiazide. Physical examination reveals normal sized prostate. Which of the following is the best next step?
- A. Urinalysis
- B. Cystoscopy
- C. Lifestyle modifications
- D. Tamsulosin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct next step is C: Lifestyle modifications. Given the patient's history of mild voiding symptoms and benign prostatic hyperplasia, the first approach should be conservative management. Lifestyle modifications, such as reducing caffeine intake from coffee and diet cola, can help alleviate urinary symptoms. Additionally, optimizing fluid intake and bladder habits can also improve symptoms. Urinalysis (choice A) may be considered later if symptoms persist or worsen. Cystoscopy (choice B) is invasive and not indicated at this stage. Tamsulosin (choice D) is a medication for BPH, but since the patient's symptoms are mild and bother score is low, starting with lifestyle modifications is more appropriate.
You want to start pharmacologic treatment for depression in an older patient who is taking numerous medications. Which of the following antidepressants is the least likely to cause drug-drug interactions?
- A. Citalopram
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Paroxetine
- D. Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I believe you made a typo in listing the correct answer as "E" while there is no "E" option in the choices provided. Could you please confirm the correct answer choice so I can provide you with a detailed explanation and summary of why the correct answer is correct and why the other choices are incorrect?
Dr. Smith is obtaining informed consent from Mr. Jones to perform a colonoscopy. Which element of decision-making capacity is impaired in this case?
- A. Understanding
- B. Appreciation
- C. Ability to express a choice
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Appreciation. In this scenario, Mr. Jones may understand the information presented about the colonoscopy, but he may not fully appreciate the implications and consequences of undergoing the procedure. Appreciation involves the ability to understand the personal relevance of the information provided. This is crucial in ensuring that the individual can make a truly informed decision.
A: Understanding is not impaired as Mr. Jones may comprehend the information presented.
C: Ability to express a choice is not necessarily impaired in this case, as Mr. Jones may still be able to verbalize his decision.
D: None of the above is incorrect because Appreciation is indeed impaired in this situation.