Nokea
Virchow's node receives lymphatics from all except:
- A. testes
- B. stomach
- C. prostate
- D. breast
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Virchow's node is a left supraclavicular lymph node that typically receives lymphatics from abdominal organs. The correct answer is C: prostate because the prostate is not an abdominal organ and does not drain into Virchow's node. The other choices, A: testes, B: stomach, and D: breast, all drain into the abdominal lymphatic system, making them potential sources of lymphatic drainage to Virchow's node.
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A 9-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with emesis and headache of 3 weeks' duration. MRI reveals a large heterogeneous mass in the cerebellum. He undergoes a resection, and the pathology is most consistent with a classic medulloblastoma. Which of the following findings would classify the patient as a high-risk medulloblastoma?
- A. Elevated serum and CSF AFP and beta-HCG tumor markers
- B. WNT subgrouping on molecular classification
- C. A presurgical spine MRI that reveals bulky tumor in the spine
- D. A postoperative brain MRI with no signs of residual tumor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A presurgical spine MRI revealing bulky tumor in the spine classifies the patient as high-risk medulloblastoma due to metastasis. This finding indicates dissemination of the tumor beyond the primary site in the cerebellum, which is associated with poorer prognosis and necessitates more aggressive treatment.
Choice A is incorrect because elevated serum and CSF tumor markers are not specific indicators of high-risk medulloblastoma. Choice B (WNT subgrouping) is associated with favorable prognosis, so it does not classify the patient as high-risk. Choice D (postoperative brain MRI showing no residual tumor) is a positive outcome but does not address the presence of metastasis, which is crucial in determining high-risk status.
A 4-year-old boy is pale with intermittent jaundice and splenomegaly. Laboratory results are as follows: RBC 4.85 M/mcL (N); Hgb 8.6 g/dL (L); Hct 25.8% (L); MCV 81.6 (N); MCHC 38% (H); RDW 20% (H); Retic 7% (H). What are the two best tests to distinguish autoimmune hemolytic anemia from hereditary spherocytosis?
- A. Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin and IgG levels
- B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis and direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
- C. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and modified Russell viper venom test
- D. Red cell distribution width (RDW) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: As the correct answer is not provided, I'll provide a step-by-step rationale for each choice:
A: Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin and IgG levels are not specific tests for distinguishing between autoimmune hemolytic anemia and hereditary spherocytosis.
B: Hemoglobin electrophoresis and direct antiglobulin test (DAT) can help differentiate between these two conditions as autoimmune hemolytic anemia is associated with a positive DAT, while hereditary spherocytosis typically has a negative DAT.
C: Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and modified Russell viper venom test are not specific tests for distinguishing between autoimmune hemolytic anemia and hereditary spherocytosis.
D: Red cell distribution width (RDW) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) are not typically used to distinguish between autoimmune hemolytic anemia and hereditary spherocytosis.
Therefore, the best tests
A 50-year-old male who had frequent infections of his upper respiratory tract manifested with subcutaneous petechiae over his arms and legs. Investigations revealed low hemoglobin and a dry tap marrow. The most likely condition the patient is suffering from
- A. Iron deficiency anemia
- B. Megaloblastic anemia
- C. Hemolytic anemia
- D. Aplastic anemia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aplastic anemia. This condition is characterized by pancytopenia, which includes low hemoglobin (anemia), low platelets (manifested as petechiae), and low white blood cells (frequent infections). Dry tap marrow is a classic finding in aplastic anemia due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) typically presents with microcytic hypochromic anemia without pancytopenia. Megaloblastic anemia (choice B) is characterized by macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils and is usually caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 or folate. Hemolytic anemia (choice C) presents with anemia due to increased destruction of red blood cells, which does not explain the low platelets and white blood cells seen in this patient.
A patient's complete blood count (CBC) shows a hemoglobin of 19 g/dL and a hematocrit of 54%. Which question should the nurse ask to determine possible causes of this finding?
- A. Have you had a recent weight loss?
- B. Do you have any history of lung disease?
- C. Have you noticed any dark or bloody stools?
- D. What is your dietary intake of meats and protein?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do you have any history of lung disease? A high hemoglobin and hematocrit can be indicative of chronic hypoxia, often seen in lung diseases like COPD. The nurse should ask about lung disease to explore the possibility of chronic hypoxia as the underlying cause. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the potential cause of elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels in this scenario.
An 18-year old male patient presents with bruising, fatigue, and diffuse extremity pain. He is noted to be tachypneic and hypoxic and has a diffuse interstitial infiltrate on chest x-ray. CBC reveals a WBC count of 285,000/mm3 (85% myeloblasts, with monocytic morphology), hemoglobin of 7.9 g/dL, and platelet count of 36,000/mm3. What is the most likely cause of the infiltrate and respiratory symptoms and the most appropriate initial treatment?
- A. Hyperleukocytosis; initiation of induction chemotherapy
- B. Hyperleukocytosis; leukapheresis or manual exchange transfusion and initiation of induction chemotherapy
- C. COVID-19 infection; convalescent plasma and prednisone
- D. Pneumococcal pneumonia; vancomycin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperleukocytosis; leukapheresis or manual exchange transfusion and initiation of induction chemotherapy. In this scenario, the patient's symptoms and lab findings are consistent with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) with leukostasis, causing hypoxia and interstitial infiltrates. Leukapheresis or manual exchange transfusion is crucial to rapidly reduce the high white blood cell count, which can help alleviate symptoms and prevent complications like tissue hypoxia. Initiation of induction chemotherapy is also essential for long-term management of AML.
Rationale for why other choices are incorrect:
A: Hyperleukocytosis alone without leukostasis does not typically require immediate leukoreduction, as in this case. Induction chemotherapy should be initiated promptly to address the underlying AML.
C: COVID-19 infection would not typically present with such profound leukocytosis and monocytic morphology. Convalescent plasma and prednisone are not