Nokea
What are possible characteristics of a patient who is at a higher risk for developing uterine cancer?
- A. 35-year-old patient with 2 vaginal births
- B. 16-year-old patient with 28-day menstrual cycle
- C. 67-year old patient taking only estrogen for HRT
- D. 25-year-old patient taking oral contraceptive pills
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Uterine cancer risk increases with age, so a 67-year-old patient is at higher risk.
2. Estrogen-only HRT without progesterone increases uterine cancer risk.
3. Other choices are less likely: A has lower age and childbirth may reduce risk, B's age and menstrual cycle are not typical risk factors, and D's oral contraceptives may decrease uterine cancer risk.
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A prolapsed uterus results from weakening of the supporting ligaments of the uterus, which permits retroflexion (backward tilt) and descent of the uterus into the vagina.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. NA
- D. NA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Weakening of the supporting ligaments can lead to a prolapsed uterus.
After delivery, a woman is likely to exhibit signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock with blood loss greater than
- A. 500 mL
- B. 1000 mL
- C. 1500 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Significant hemorrhage exceeding 1
What is the primary structural difference between the male and female urethra?
- A. The male urethra has two functions, whereas the female urethra has one.
- B. The male urethra is up to three times as long as the female urethra.
- C. The female urethra is less protected than the male urethra.
- D. The female urethra is connected directly to the bladder.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The male urethra is up to three times as long as the female urethra. This is because the male urethra serves a dual function - for both urine and semen passage, requiring a longer length for transportation. In contrast, the female urethra is shorter and primarily functions for urine passage only. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the primary structural difference in length between the male and female urethra.
Which 16-year-old female patient is most likely to experience secondary amenorrhea?
- A. 5 ft 2 in, 130 lb
- B. 5 ft 9 in, 180 lb
- C. 5 ft 7 in, 96 lb
- D. 5 ft 4 in, 125 lb
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a 16-year-old female with a height of 5 ft 9 in and weight of 180 lb is most likely to experience secondary amenorrhea due to obesity. Excess body fat can disrupt hormonal balance, leading to irregular or absent menstrual cycles. The other choices do not indicate obesity, which is a common cause of secondary amenorrhea in adolescents. Choice A is overweight but not obese, choice C is underweight, and choice D is within a healthy weight range. Therefore, choice B is the most likely candidate for secondary amenorrhea based on the given information.
Which of the following is the least predictable method of determining ovulation time?
- A. The measurement of LH in the urine
- B. The length of previous cycles
- C. The change in basal body temperature
- D. All of the above methods are equally accurate in determining ovulation time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The length of previous cycles is less predictable compared to other methods.