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What are the key signs of preeclampsia?
- A. High blood pressure
- B. Proteinuria
- C. Severe headaches
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and symptoms like severe headaches. High blood pressure is a hallmark sign, proteinuria indicates kidney damage, and severe headaches can be a symptom of worsening preeclampsia. Therefore, all three signs are crucial for diagnosing preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because they do not encompass all the key signs necessary for diagnosing preeclampsia.
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Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
- A. Feminizing adrenal tumors are almost always carcinomas
- B. Feminizing adrenal tumors are the most common type of adrenal tumor
- C. Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex
- D. Virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be malignant in children NURS 6560N Final Exam Answers 2024 NURS 6560 Final Exam Questions and Answers 2024
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex. This is because virilizing tumors typically involve excessive production of androgens, which are male sex hormones, and are commonly associated with adrenal cortex disorders.
A is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors can be either benign or malignant, not always carcinomas. B is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors are rare compared to virilizing tumors. D is incorrect because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be benign rather than malignant in children.
In summary, the correct answer highlights the common association of virilizing tumors with the adrenal cortex in women, while the other choices present incorrect information regarding the types and malignancy of adrenal tumors.
Five (5) major factors predisposed to uterine rupture:
- A. Previous C-section, uterine scars, fetal macrosomia, trauma, prolonged labor
- B. Malpresentation, premature rupture of membranes, obesity, malnutrition, anemia
- C. Uterine fibroids, excessive weight gain, smoking, poor prenatal care
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A):
1. Previous C-section and uterine scars weaken the uterine wall.
2. Fetal macrosomia (large baby) increases pressure on the uterus.
3. Trauma can cause direct injury to the uterus.
4. Prolonged labor can lead to uterine overdistension and fatigue, increasing rupture risk.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Malpresentation, premature rupture of membranes, obesity, malnutrition, anemia are not direct factors for uterine rupture.
C: Uterine fibroids, excessive weight gain, smoking, poor prenatal care can contribute to complications but not primary causes of uterine rupture.
D: Not all factors in choices B and C are predisposing factors for uterine rupture, making this choice incorrect.
M. T. is a 71-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a lump on her chest. She denies any symptomsthere is no pain, erythema, edema, ecchymosis, or open areasit is just a lump. She has no idea how long it has been there and just noticed it a few weeks ago. Physical examination reveals a round, smooth, flesh-colored tumor. It is firm but not hard it has smooth borders. It measures 6 cm in diameter and is non-tender to palpation. The AGACNP suspects that this is a classic presentation of the most common chest wall tumor known as a
- A. Neurolemma
- B. Lipoma
- C. Hemangioma
- D. Lymphangioma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lipoma. A lipoma is a common benign tumor made of fat cells. In this case, the patient's presentation of a painless, soft, round, flesh-colored lump with smooth borders is consistent with a lipoma. The absence of symptoms like pain, erythema, or tenderness further supports this diagnosis. Lipomas are usually non-tender to palpation and can grow to a significant size. The other choices (A, C, D) are not the correct answers because they do not align with the characteristics described in the patient's presentation. Neurolemma is associated with nerve sheath tumors, hemangioma with blood vessel tumors, and lymphangioma with lymphatic vessel tumors, none of which match the clinical findings in this case.
Which one of the following is an endogenous cause of puerperal sepsis?
- A. Chlamydia trachomatis
- B. Escherichia coli
- C. Clostridium tetani
- D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Escherichia coli. Puerperal sepsis is often caused by endogenous bacteria from the mother's own flora. E. coli is a common endogenous bacteria found in the gastrointestinal tract and can cause infection during childbirth. Chlamydia trachomatis is a sexually transmitted infection, not typically associated with puerperal sepsis. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not puerperal sepsis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an environmental pathogen, not typically an endogenous cause of puerperal sepsis.
The term used to describe the situation whereby there is the presence of more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor is
- A. Unstable lie
- B. Fetal malpresentation
- C. Fetal malposition
- D. Compound presentation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound presentation. This term refers to the situation where there is more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor. This can include a hand or arm alongside the head or another body part. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Unstable lie refers to the fetus being in a transverse position. B: Fetal malpresentation indicates an abnormal presentation of the fetus, such as breech or transverse. C: Fetal malposition refers to the fetus being in a suboptimal position, like occiput posterior. Thus, the best choice is D as it specifically describes the scenario of multiple fetal parts on the pelvic brim.