What are the two phases of Type I hypersensitivity?
- A. Early phase and latent phase
- B. Immediate phase and late phase
- C. Acute phase and chronic phase
- D. Primary phase and secondary phase
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immediate phase and late phase. In Type I hypersensitivity, the immediate phase occurs rapidly after exposure to an allergen, leading to the release of mediators like histamine. The late phase occurs several hours later, involving sustained inflammatory response.
A: Early phase and latent phase - Incorrect because the terms do not accurately describe the phases of Type I hypersensitivity.
C: Acute phase and chronic phase - Incorrect because Type I hypersensitivity does not typically progress to a chronic phase.
D: Primary phase and secondary phase - Incorrect as these terms are not commonly used to describe the phases of Type I hypersensitivity.
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The nurse has contributed to a staff education program on immunity. Which participant response indicates a correct understanding of the type of immunity that protects newborns for the first 3 months of life as a result of maternal transmission of IgG?
- A. Active natural immunity occurs.
- B. Passive natural immunity occurs.
- C. Active artificial immunity occurs.
- D. Passive artificial immunity occurs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive natural immunity occurs. This type of immunity is achieved through the transfer of antibodies (IgG) from the mother to the fetus during pregnancy. The antibodies provide protection to the newborn for the first few months of life. It is considered passive because the newborn is not actively producing the antibodies themselves.
A: Active natural immunity occurs when the body produces its antibodies in response to exposure to an antigen. This is not the case for newborns receiving maternal IgG.
C: Active artificial immunity occurs when the body is intentionally exposed to an antigen, such as through vaccination, to stimulate an immune response. This is not relevant to the scenario described.
D: Passive artificial immunity occurs when pre-formed antibodies are transferred to an individual through a medical intervention, such as receiving immune globulin. This is not applicable to the situation of maternal transmission of IgG to newborns.
A client is in the hospital and has received two doses of an angiotensin-converting enzyme for hypertension. When the nurse answers the client's call light, the client presents an appearance as shown below: What action by the nurse takes is most appropriate?
- A. Administer epinephrine 1:1000, 0.3 mg IV push immediately.
- B. Apply oxygen by facemask at 100% and a pulse oximeter.
- C. Ensure a patent airway while calling the Rapid Response Team.
- D. Reassure the client that these symptoms will go away.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to ensure a patent airway while calling the Rapid Response Team (Choice C). This is because the client is showing signs of angioedema, a potential adverse reaction to angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. Angioedema can lead to airway compromise and respiratory distress, hence ensuring a patent airway is crucial. Additionally, calling the Rapid Response Team will allow for immediate medical intervention and monitoring of the client's condition.
Choice A (Administer epinephrine) is incorrect as epinephrine is not the first-line treatment for angioedema associated with ACE inhibitors. Choice B (Apply oxygen) is not sufficient to address the potential airway compromise. Choice D (Reassure the client) is inappropriate as the client's condition requires immediate action to address the potential airway obstruction.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of T cells?
- A. They recognize three-dimensional structures of a pathogen
- B. Their receptors possess specificity
- C. Their receptors have one antigen-binding site
- D. Their antigen receptors are never secreted
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because T cells do not recognize three-dimensional structures of a pathogen. T cell receptors interact with processed antigen fragments presented by MHC molecules on antigen-presenting cells. Choice B is correct because T cell receptors possess specificity for antigens. Choice C is incorrect because T cell receptors have multiple antigen-binding sites. Choice D is incorrect as T cell receptors can be secreted as soluble forms.
What receptor is targeted in Grave's disease, a Type V hypersensitivity reaction?
- A. Insulin receptor
- B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor
- C. Complement receptor
- D. CD4 receptor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor. In Grave's disease, autoantibodies bind to and activate the TSH receptor on thyroid cells, leading to hyperthyroidism. This is a Type II hypersensitivity reaction. Insulin receptor (A) is not involved in Grave's disease. Complement receptor (C) is not the target in this condition. CD4 receptor (D) is primarily involved in T cell activation, not in Grave's disease.
Which of the following symptoms is associated with AIDS-related distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)?
- A. Staggering gait and muscle incoordination
- B. Abnormal sensations such as burning and numbness
- C. Delusional thinking
- D. Incontinence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP) in AIDS patients often presents with abnormal sensations like burning and numbness in the extremities.