Nokea
What is an advantage of the internal condom?
- A. It can be used by those who have a latex allergy.
- B. It can be used for repeated acts of intercourse.
- C. It has a lower failure rate than external condoms.
- D. It can be used for pleasure purposes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the internal condom is made of nitrile, which is a non-latex material. This makes it suitable for individuals with latex allergies. Choice B is incorrect because both internal and external condoms can be used for repeated acts of intercourse. Choice C is incorrect because internal condoms do not necessarily have a lower failure rate than external condoms. Choice D is incorrect because while condoms can enhance pleasure during intercourse, the primary purpose of the internal condom is for protection rather than pleasure.
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A patient has just acknowledged that she is 20 weeks pregnant and confides to the nurse that she has a daily heroin habit. The nurse discusses treatment options for the patient. Which patient statement requires follow-up?
- A. "My plan is to visit the outpatient clinic daily for treatment."
- B. "will see my health care provider at least every 2 weeks."
- C. "My baby will not have to go through withdrawal when I take methadone."
- D. "With oral methadone, my baby and I are at decreased risk of infection."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because seeing the healthcare provider every 2 weeks may not be frequent enough for monitoring a pregnant patient with a heroin habit. Regular monitoring is crucial for the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Option A shows a proactive approach for daily treatment, Option C is incorrect as methadone does not eliminate the risk of withdrawal in newborns, and Option D is incorrect as methadone does not reduce the risk of infection. Regular and close monitoring is essential in such cases to ensure the safety and health of both the mother and the baby.
A client at 37 weeks' gestation reports severe itching without a rash. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Preeclampsia.
- B. Cholestasis of pregnancy.
- C. Gestational diabetes.
- D. Fungal infection.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholestasis of pregnancy. Severe itching without a rash in a pregnant client at 37 weeks' gestation is concerning for cholestasis of pregnancy, a condition characterized by impaired bile flow. This can lead to elevated bile acids, causing itching. Preeclampsia (choice A) presents with hypertension and proteinuria. Gestational diabetes (choice C) manifests with high blood sugar levels. Fungal infection (choice D) typically presents with visible skin changes like a rash, which is absent in this case. In summary, cholestasis of pregnancy is the most likely explanation for severe itching in this scenario.
A woman had a miscarriage at 12 weeks' gestation and had D&C,
- A. While you are assessing her response to loss, she tells you she had
- B. Based on your assessment what nursing intervention would you use first?
- C. You ask her what items she bought for the baby
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the priority in nursing care after a miscarriage and D&C is to assess the woman's physical and emotional well-being. By using the nursing intervention of assessment first, the nurse can determine any immediate needs for pain management, emotional support, or further medical intervention. This helps in providing individualized care and addressing any potential complications promptly.
Choice A is incorrect because assessing her response to loss comes after ensuring her immediate physical and emotional needs are met. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on material items rather than the woman's well-being. Choice D is incomplete and does not provide a viable option for nursing intervention.
The nurse is reviewing a prenatal client’s record. Which history finding increases the risk for preeclampsia?
- A. Advanced maternal age.
- B. History of gestational diabetes.
- C. First pregnancy.
- D. History of anemia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: First pregnancy. Preeclampsia is more common in first pregnancies due to the body's lack of adaptation to the pregnancy. In subsequent pregnancies, the body has already gone through the changes necessary for pregnancy, reducing the risk. Advanced maternal age (A) and history of gestational diabetes (B) are risk factors for other pregnancy complications but not specifically preeclampsia. History of anemia (D) is not directly linked to an increased risk of preeclampsia.
A patient vaginally delivered an infant at 4750 g moderate shoulder dystocia occurred during the birth. During the initial assessment of the infant the nurse should look for
- A. Erb's palsy
- B. Bell palsy
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Petechiae
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. During shoulder dystocia, the infant may experience umbilical cord compression leading to decreased oxygen supply and potential bradycardia. Bradycardia is a critical sign that requires immediate attention. Erb's palsy (A) is a brachial plexus injury due to shoulder dystocia, not an immediate concern. Bell palsy (B) is a facial nerve paralysis unrelated to birth trauma. Petechiae (D) are small red or purple spots that may indicate bleeding disorders but are not specific to shoulder dystocia.