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What is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR?
- A. Proton-pump inhibitor
- B. Endoscopic balloon dilatation
- C. Sucralfate
- D. Esophageal resection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Endoscopic balloon dilatation. This is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR because these symptoms suggest achalasia, a motility disorder of the esophagus. Endoscopic balloon dilatation helps to disrupt the lower esophageal sphincter muscle, relieving symptoms and improving esophageal emptying. Proton-pump inhibitors (A) are used for acid-related conditions, not for achalasia. Sucralfate (C) is a mucosal protective agent and not indicated for achalasia. Esophageal resection (D) is a more invasive option and usually reserved for severe cases or when other treatments have failed.
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A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Swallow the tablet whole.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime.
- D. Place the tablet under your tongue.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the tablet under your tongue. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used to relieve chest pain in patients with MI. Placing the tablet under the tongue allows for rapid absorption through the oral mucosa, providing quick relief. Taking it with food (A) may delay absorption. Swallowing the tablet whole (B) would result in slower absorption through the GI tract. Taking it at bedtime (C) is not necessary for immediate relief of chest pain.
A 34-year-old woman presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea. She notes that her symptoms improve with fasting. She has a history of iron deficiency anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Irritable bowel syndrome
- B. Celiac disease
- C. Lactose intolerance
- D. Crohn's disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Celiac disease. The patient's symptoms of abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, and improvement with fasting are classic for celiac disease, an autoimmune condition triggered by gluten ingestion. Her iron deficiency anemia can be attributed to malabsorption common in celiac disease. Irritable bowel syndrome (A) typically presents with abdominal pain relieved by defecation, not fasting. Lactose intolerance (C) results in symptoms after consuming dairy, not necessarily improved by fasting. Crohn's disease (D) may present similarly, but the improvement with fasting and iron deficiency anemia point more towards celiac disease in this case.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?
- A. Use this medication only during acute exacerbations.
- B. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler. This instruction is important because tiotropium is an inhaled medication that can cause dry mouth and increase the risk of oral thrush. Rinsing the mouth after each use helps reduce these side effects.
A: Using the medication only during acute exacerbations is incorrect because tiotropium is a maintenance medication for COPD to improve lung function and reduce symptoms.
C: Taking the medication with food is unnecessary as tiotropium can be taken with or without food.
D: Increasing fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day is not specifically related to tiotropium use and is not necessary for all COPD patients.
An 89-year-old male client complains to the nurse that people are whispering behind his back and mumbling when they talk to him. What age-related condition is likely to be occurring with this client?
- A. Delirium
- B. Presbyopia
- C. Presbycusis
- D. Cerebral dysfunction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Presbycusis. This age-related condition refers to gradual hearing loss typically seen in older adults. In this case, the client's complaint of people whispering and mumbling suggests difficulty hearing clearly, which aligns with symptoms of presbycusis. Delirium (choice A) is characterized by acute confusion and disorientation, not specifically related to hearing loss. Presbyopia (choice B) is a condition of aging that affects near vision, not hearing. Cerebral dysfunction (choice D) refers to broader cognitive impairment, not specifically related to hearing loss as in presbycusis. Therefore, choice C is the most likely age-related condition in this scenario.
A 55-year-old man presents with jaundice, pruritus, and dark urine. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC). PBC typically presents with jaundice, pruritus, and dark urine due to impaired bile flow. Elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels are common in PBC. Imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct support the diagnosis of PBC. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (Choice B) would show strictures and beading of bile ducts on imaging. Gallstones (Choice C) would typically present with a common bile duct obstruction. Pancreatic cancer (Choice D) may present with similar symptoms but is less likely given the specific imaging findings in this case.