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What is the common side effect that is normal with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine due to increased vasodilation?
- A. Abdominal cramps
- B. Calf
- C. Headache
- D. Blurred vision
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most common side effect that is normal with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine due to increased vasodilation is a headache. Nitroglycerine causes vasodilation of blood vessels, including the blood vessels in the head and brain. This can lead to headaches as a result of the increased blood flow and changes in blood vessel diameter. Headaches caused by Nitroglycerine are usually mild and transient. It is important to monitor patients for this expected side effect and educate them about it to ensure compliance with the medication regimen.
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Penicillin's effectiveness against rapidly growing cell is primarily due to its effect on what?
- A. protein synthesis
- B. chelation of metal ions
- C. cell wall synthesis
- D. cell membrane permeability
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Penicillin is a type of antibiotic that works by disrupting the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall. Bacterial cells have a cell wall that provides structural support and protection. The cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan, a complex molecule that gives the cell wall its strength. Penicillin interferes with the formation of peptidoglycan by inhibiting the enzyme transpeptidase, which is essential for cross-linking the peptidoglycan strands. As a result, bacterial cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure and eventually burst, leading to their death. This mechanism of action is particularly effective against rapidly growing bacterial cells because they are actively synthesizing new cell wall components to keep up with their growth. Thus, penicillin's primary effectiveness against rapidly growing cells is primarily due to its disruption of cell wall synthesis.
What is the pharmacological action of metformin?
- A. Biguanides
- B. Benzodiazepines
- C. Nitrates
- D. Digitalis glycosides
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin belongs to the class of medications known as biguanides. Biguanides work by decreasing glucose production in the liver and also improving insulin sensitivity in the muscles, helping to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes. Additionally, metformin can also reduce glucose absorption in the intestines and increase glucose uptake in peripheral tissues. Its main pharmacological action is to improve glycemic control and reduce hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes.
Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solution of volatile substances
- A. decoction
- B. fluid extract
- C. solution
- D. spirits
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A spirit is an alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solution of volatile substances obtained by distillation. It is commonly used in the production of alcoholic beverages and in the pharmaceutical industry for preparing tinctures and extracts. Spirits are characterized by their high alcohol content and ability to extract and preserve the properties of the substances they are derived from. Decoction is a method of extracting compounds from plants using boiling water, fluid extract is a concentrated liquid extract of a substance, solution refers to a homogeneous mixture of substances, and syrup is a thick, sweet liquid usually made by dissolving sugar in water.
A patient is receiving an IV infusion of heparin and was started on warfarin therapy the night
- A. Which statement is most correct?
- B. The patient is receiving a double dose of anticoagulants.
- C. The heparin therapy was ineffective, so the warfarin was starte
- D. The heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reache
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement is that the heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reached. Heparin and warfarin are both anticoagulants but work in different ways. Heparin acts quickly to prevent blood clot formation while warfarin takes several days to reach its full effect. Therefore, heparin is often used initially to provide immediate anticoagulation while waiting for the warfarin to reach therapeutic levels. This dual therapy is common in clinical practice to ensure continuous anticoagulation.
Reye's syndrome, a potentially fatal illness associated with liver failure and encephalopathy is associated with the administration of which over-the-counter (OTC) medication?
- A. acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- B. ibuprofen (Motrin)
- C. aspirin
- D. brompheniramine/pseudoephedrine (Dimetapp)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reye's syndrome is linked to the use of aspirin in children and adolescents, particularly during viral infections. It causes severe liver and brain damage. Acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and antihistamines are not associated with this condition. Avoiding aspirin in pediatric patients is critical to prevent this rare but life-threatening syndrome.