Nokea
A patient requires a nonopioid medication. The nurse knows that which medication will cause the least gastrointestinal distress?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Ketorolac
- C. Celecoxib
- D. Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor, which means it primarily targets the COX-2 enzyme involved in inflammation and pain while sparing the COX-1 enzyme that protects the stomach lining. This selectivity reduces the risk of gastrointestinal distress, such as ulcers and bleeding, compared to non-selective NSAIDs like aspirin, ketorolac, and ibuprofen. Therefore, celecoxib is the best choice for patients who require a nonopioid medication with minimal gastrointestinal side effects. Nurses should consider this when selecting pain management options for patients with a history of gastrointestinal issues.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following should be monitored for patients taking diuretics? (select all that apply)
- A. Daily weight
- B. Intake and output
- C. Amount and location of edema
- D. Appetite
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. Daily weight should be monitored for patients taking diuretics because diuretics can cause fluid loss which may lead to weight changes. Fluctuations in weight can indicate changes in fluid balance and help determine the effectiveness of the diuretic therapy.
Penicillin's effectiveness against rapidly growing cell is primarily due to its effect on what?
- A. protein synthesis
- B. chelation of metal ions
- C. cell wall synthesis
- D. cell membrane permeability
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Penicillin is a type of antibiotic that works by disrupting the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall. Bacterial cells have a cell wall that provides structural support and protection. The cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan, a complex molecule that gives the cell wall its strength. Penicillin interferes with the formation of peptidoglycan by inhibiting the enzyme transpeptidase, which is essential for cross-linking the peptidoglycan strands. As a result, bacterial cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure and eventually burst, leading to their death. This mechanism of action is particularly effective against rapidly growing bacterial cells because they are actively synthesizing new cell wall components to keep up with their growth. Thus, penicillin's primary effectiveness against rapidly growing cells is primarily due to its disruption of cell wall synthesis.
What is the pharmacological action of metformin?
- A. Biguanides
- B. Benzodiazepines
- C. Nitrates
- D. Digitalis glycosides
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin belongs to the class of medications known as biguanides. Biguanides work by decreasing glucose production in the liver and also improving insulin sensitivity in the muscles, helping to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes. Additionally, metformin can also reduce glucose absorption in the intestines and increase glucose uptake in peripheral tissues. Its main pharmacological action is to improve glycemic control and reduce hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes.
When giving a patient Lithium what is a life threatening side effect?
- A. Erythema
- B. Pancreatitis
- C. Seizures
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: One life-threatening side effect of lithium therapy is the risk of seizures. While seizures are a rare side effect, they can occur, especially at higher doses or in patients with a history of seizure disorders. It is important to monitor for any signs of seizures in patients taking lithium and to promptly address any potential neurological symptoms.
A patient is receiving an IV infusion of heparin and was started on warfarin therapy the night
- A. Which statement is most correct?
- B. The patient is receiving a double dose of anticoagulants.
- C. The heparin therapy was ineffective, so the warfarin was starte
- D. The heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reache
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement is that the heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reached. Heparin and warfarin are both anticoagulants but work in different ways. Heparin acts quickly to prevent blood clot formation while warfarin takes several days to reach its full effect. Therefore, heparin is often used initially to provide immediate anticoagulation while waiting for the warfarin to reach therapeutic levels. This dual therapy is common in clinical practice to ensure continuous anticoagulation.