Nokea
Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient receiving antidysrhythmics?
- A. Risk for infection
- B. Deficient knowledge
- C. Deficient fluid volume
- D. Urinary retention
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient receiving antidysrhythmics would be Deficient fluid volume. Antidysrhythmics can have side effects such as electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to fluid volume deficit. Monitoring the patient's fluid intake and output is crucial to prevent dehydration and maintain proper electrolyte balance. Therefore, identifying Deficient fluid volume as a nursing diagnosis allows for appropriate interventions to be implemented to address and prevent this potential complication.
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What is the pharmacological action of meç€æ˜€ormin?
- A. Biguanides
- B. Benzodiazepines
- C. Nitrates
- D. Digitalis glycosides
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin belongs to the class of medications known as biguanides. Biguanides work primarily by decreasing glucose production in the liver and increasing insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues, such as muscles. They also help improve glucose uptake and utilization by cells, leading to better control of blood sugar levels. Metformin is commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus and can also be used in the management of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
The nurse observes a short period of asystole on the cardiac monitor that resolves spontaneously immediately after administering adenosine IV to a patient who was experiencing paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Which initial action is the most appropriate for the nurse?
- A. Call a code to report a cardiac arrest.
- B. Prepare epinephrine and atropine for intravenous administration.
- C. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
- D. Closely observe the patient and the cardiac monitor.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Adenosine is used to treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) by temporarily blocking AV node conduction, which can cause a brief period of asystole. This is an expected effect and typically resolves spontaneously. The nurse should closely monitor the patient and the cardiac monitor for the return of a normal rhythm. Calling a code (A), preparing epinephrine and atropine (B), or initiating CPR (C) is unnecessary unless the asystole persists or the patient becomes unstable.
Prototype of narcotic analgesic agents:
- A. morphine
- B. codeine
- C. heroin
- D. meperidine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Morphine is the prototype of narcotic analgesic agents. It is a strong opioid analgesic that is commonly used for the relief of severe pain. Morphine acts on the central nervous system to reduce the perception of pain and is often used in medical settings, such as hospitals, to manage post-operative pain or pain associated with certain medical conditions like cancer. Other opioids, such as codeine, heroin, meperidine, and oxycodone, are derived from or related to morphine but may have different or varying levels of potency, side effects, and addiction potential.
The nurse notes in the patient™s medication orders that the patient will be taking ibutilide (Corvert). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
- A. Ventricular ectopy
- B. Atrial fibrillation
- C. Supraventricular tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibutilide (Corvert) is a medication commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation, a type of irregular heart rhythm that originates in the heart's upper chambers (atria). It works by restoring normal heart rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation. Therefore, the nurse notes the use of ibutilide in the patient's medication orders, indicating that the patient has atrial fibrillation.
A patient is receiving an IV infusion of heparin and was started on warfarin therapy the night
- A. Which statement is most correct?
- B. The patient is receiving a double dose of anticoagulants.
- C. The heparin therapy was ineffective, so the warfarin was starte
- D. The heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reache
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement is that the heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reached. Heparin and warfarin are both anticoagulants but work in different ways. Heparin acts quickly to prevent blood clot formation while warfarin takes several days to reach its full effect. Therefore, heparin is often used initially to provide immediate anticoagulation while waiting for the warfarin to reach therapeutic levels. This dual therapy is common in clinical practice to ensure continuous anticoagulation.