What is the main purpose of complement component C5a?
- A. Opsonization
- B. Cell lysis
- C. Recruitment and activation of immune cells
- D. Inhibition of inflammation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Recruitment and activation of immune cells. C5a is a potent chemoattractant that attracts immune cells to the site of infection or inflammation. It also activates these immune cells, leading to enhanced immune responses. Option A (Opsonization) and B (Cell lysis) are not the main functions of C5a. Option D (Inhibition of inflammation) is incorrect because C5a actually promotes inflammation by recruiting and activating immune cells.
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A 21-year-old patient says no one in his family has type 1 diabetes mellitus but he has had it since childhood. He asks how his diabetes was transmitted to him. The nurse should explain to him that this disease is
- A. a single gene disorder
- B. a chromosome disorder
- C. an acquired genetic disorder
- D. a multifactorial genetic disorder
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is considered a multifactorial genetic disorder influenced by multiple genes and environmental factors rather than being caused by a single gene or chromosome.
The nurse realizes that the patient understands the teaching about decreasing the risk for antibiotic-resistant infection when the patient says which of the following?
- A. I know I should take the antibiotic for one day after I feel better.
- B. I want an antibiotic ordered for my cold so I can feel better sooner.
- C. I always save some pills because I get the illness again after I first feel better.
- D. I will follow the directions for taking the antibiotic so I will get over this infection.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Following the prescribed regimen ensures complete eradication of the infection and reduces the risk of resistance development.
The nurse is preparing an injection for an individual who requires passive immunity. In which situation would passive immunity be indicated?
- A. For permanent immunity against a disease
- B. To overcome an allergic reaction that is relatively mild
- C. To have ready-made antibodies after an exposure to pathogens
- D. As a booster dose to stimulate the production of specific antibodies
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Passive immunity is indicated when an individual needs immediate protection with ready-made antibodies after exposure to pathogens. This is the correct answer (C) as it provides immediate defense without waiting for the body to produce its antibodies. Choice A is incorrect because passive immunity is temporary, not permanent. Choice B is incorrect as it addresses treating allergic reactions, not providing immunity. Choice D is incorrect as a booster dose stimulates the body to produce its antibodies, not providing ready-made antibodies.
The patient is transferring from another facility with the description of a sore on her sacrum that is deep enough to see the muscle. What stage of pressure ulcer does the nurse expect to see on admission?
- A. Stage I
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage III
- D. Stage IV
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stage IV pressure ulcers involve full-thickness tissue loss, exposing muscle, tendon, or bone.
Which of the following statements is false about dendritic cells
- A. Found in tissues
- B. Are sessile cells only found in lymph nodes
- C. Express high levels of MHC molecules
- D. Best at activating naïve T cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because dendritic cells are not only found in lymph nodes but also in tissues. These cells are antigen-presenting cells that capture and present antigens to T cells. A, C, and D are true statements about dendritic cells: A) They are found in tissues, C) They express high levels of MHC molecules for antigen presentation, and D) They are best at activating naive T cells due to their ability to prime adaptive immune responses.