Nokea
What is the most important intervention for a client with a wound infection?
- A. Administer antibiotics
- B. Apply a cold compress
- C. Apply heat to the wound
- D. Administer IV fluids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics. Antibiotics are crucial in treating wound infections as they target and eliminate the infection-causing bacteria, preventing the infection from spreading and promoting healing. Applying a cold compress (choice B) or heat (choice C) may provide temporary relief but do not address the underlying infection. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may be necessary for hydration, but it does not directly treat the infection. Antibiotics directly target the infection, making it the most important intervention for a client with a wound infection.
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A woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe itching on her lower legs. Upon examination, the nurse notices red, scaly patches on the skin. The nurse suspects that this is:
- A. Psoriasis.
- B. Eczema.
- C. Contact dermatitis.
- D. A fungal infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Psoriasis. Psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, which align with the symptoms described. Psoriasis commonly affects the lower legs and is associated with severe itching. Eczema (choice B) is characterized by red, inflamed, and itchy skin patches, but typically presents differently from psoriasis. Contact dermatitis (choice C) is a localized reaction that occurs when the skin comes into contact with an irritant or allergen, and fungal infections (choice D) typically present with itching, redness, and sometimes peeling skin, but not necessarily scaly patches like psoriasis.
A 59-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is in the clinic to "check up on his ulcerative colitis." He has been having "black stools" in the last 24 hours. How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care?
- A. J.M. is a 59-year-old male here for "ulcerative colitis."
- B. J.M. came into the clinic complaining of black stools in the past 24 hours.
- C. J.M., a 59-year-old male, states he has ulcerative colitis and wants to have it checked up.
- D. J.M. is a 59-year-old male here for having "black stools" in the past 24 hours.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it accurately reflects the patient's chief complaint of having black stools in the last 24 hours, which is a concerning symptom suggestive of gastrointestinal bleeding. This documentation is specific and focused on the reason for seeking care, prioritizing the urgent nature of the symptom.
Choice A is incorrect because it does not mention the presenting symptom of black stools. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly state the reason for seeking care. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's self-diagnosis of ulcerative colitis rather than the current concerning symptom of black stools.
Which intervention should be performed when assessing a client with an arteriovenous fistula (AVF) for hemodialysis?
- A. Check the patency of the fistula
- B. Monitor for bleeding
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Apply an airtight dressing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Administer IV fluids
Rationale:
1. Assess patient's fluid status and hydration level.
2. IV fluids help maintain adequate hydration during hemodialysis.
3. Prevents hypotension and ensures stable blood pressure during the procedure.
4. Improves overall hemodialysis efficiency and patient safety.
Summary:
A: Checking patency is important, but not the primary intervention for hemodialysis.
B: Monitoring for bleeding is crucial but not specific to AVF assessment.
D: Applying an airtight dressing is not necessary for AVF assessment.
What should be the nurse's first action when caring for a client who has a suspected stroke?
- A. Assess the client's airway
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Administer aspirin
- D. Perform a CT scan
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the client's airway. This is the first action because airway patency is the top priority in any emergency situation, including a suspected stroke. Ensuring the client can breathe effectively is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering oxygen (choice B) may be necessary after assessing the airway. Administering aspirin (choice C) should be done after a definitive diagnosis of an ischemic stroke. Performing a CT scan (choice D) is important for diagnosis but is not the first action to take in a suspected stroke scenario.
What is the most appropriate action when a client experiences chest pain and has a history of myocardial infarction?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin
- B. Administer aspirin
- C. Administer morphine
- D. Administer beta blockers
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the recommended initial medication for chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. It helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart, and reducing chest pain. Aspirin (choice B) is also usually given to reduce blood clot formation, but nitroglycerin is the priority for immediate relief. Morphine (choice C) may be used if nitroglycerin is ineffective, and beta blockers (choice D) are typically used for long-term management of heart conditions, not for immediate relief of chest pain.