What should be the first intervention for a client suspected of having a stroke?
- A. Monitor neurological status
- B. Perform a CT scan
- C. Administer fibrinolytics
- D. Perform MRI
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client suspected of having a stroke is to perform a CT scan (Choice B). This is because a CT scan can quickly identify the type of stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic) and guide treatment decisions. Monitoring neurological status (Choice A) can be important but does not provide a definitive diagnosis. Administering fibrinolytics (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the type of stroke to avoid complications. Performing an MRI (Choice D) is more time-consuming and may not be feasible in the acute setting where quick intervention is crucial. Therefore, a CT scan is the most appropriate initial intervention for a suspected stroke.
You may also like to solve these questions
Critique the following statement made by the nurse: "I know it may be hard, but you should do what the doctor ordered because he/she is the expert in this field.'
- A. This statement is inappropriate because it shows the nurse's bias.
- B. This statement is appropriate because members of the health care team are experts in the area of patient care.
- C. This type of statement creates dependency and inferiority in the patient and is best avoided in an interview situation.
- D. At times, it is necessary to use authority statements when dealing with patients, especially when they are undecided about an issue.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the statement made by the nurse implies a power dynamic that can create dependency and inferiority in the patient, which is not conducive to a patient-centered approach. In a healthcare setting, it is important to empower patients to be active participants in their care decisions rather than being passive recipients. Encouraging patients to blindly follow orders without understanding or questioning can lead to poor outcomes and lack of patient engagement. Therefore, it is best to avoid making statements that reinforce hierarchical relationships and instead foster open communication and shared decision-making.
The other choices are incorrect because:
A: This choice focuses on bias, which is not the main issue at hand in this scenario.
B: While healthcare team members are experts in their respective fields, the emphasis should be on collaborative decision-making rather than blind obedience.
D: Using authority statements may be necessary in certain situations, but it does not address the potential harm of creating dependency and inferiority in the patient.
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of stroke. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
- A. Pulmonary embolism.
- B. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
- C. Hypertension.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients with a history of stroke are at increased risk for DVT due to immobility and potential damage to blood vessels. Monitoring for DVT is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism (A) is a potential complication of DVT but not the most direct concern. Hypertension (C) is a common condition but not directly linked to a history of stroke. Hyperglycemia (D) is more commonly associated with diabetes rather than stroke history. Monitoring for DVT in stroke patients is essential for early detection and intervention.
What is the most appropriate action when a client experiences chest pain and has a history of myocardial infarction?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin
- B. Administer aspirin
- C. Administer morphine
- D. Administer beta blockers
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the recommended initial medication for chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. It helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart, and reducing chest pain. Aspirin (choice B) is also usually given to reduce blood clot formation, but nitroglycerin is the priority for immediate relief. Morphine (choice C) may be used if nitroglycerin is ineffective, and beta blockers (choice D) are typically used for long-term management of heart conditions, not for immediate relief of chest pain.
Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
- A. Rickets
- B. Marasmus
- C. Kwashiorkor
- D. Scurvy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Scurvy. Scurvy is caused by a deficiency in vitamin C, which is essential for collagen synthesis. Without enough vitamin C, collagen production is impaired, leading to symptoms like bleeding gums, fatigue, and joint pain.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Rickets is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, not vitamin C.
B: Marasmus is a severe form of malnutrition due to inadequate intake of calories and protein, not specifically vitamin C.
C: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe acute malnutrition typically caused by inadequate protein intake, not vitamin C deficiency.
In summary, the correct answer is D (Scurvy) because it directly relates to inadequate intake of vitamin C, while the other choices are associated with different nutrient deficiencies.
Which intervention should be performed when assessing a client with an arteriovenous fistula (AVF) for hemodialysis?
- A. Check the patency of the fistula
- B. Monitor for bleeding
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Apply an airtight dressing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Administer IV fluids
Rationale:
1. Assess patient's fluid status and hydration level.
2. IV fluids help maintain adequate hydration during hemodialysis.
3. Prevents hypotension and ensures stable blood pressure during the procedure.
4. Improves overall hemodialysis efficiency and patient safety.
Summary:
A: Checking patency is important, but not the primary intervention for hemodialysis.
B: Monitoring for bleeding is crucial but not specific to AVF assessment.
D: Applying an airtight dressing is not necessary for AVF assessment.