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What is the most likely diagnosis in a 30-year-old woman with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with elevated white blood cell count and bilirubin levels?
- A. Acute hepatitis
- B. Acute cholecystitis
- C. Acute cholangitis
- D. Pancreatic cancer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acute cholangitis. In a 30-year-old woman with right upper quadrant pain, fever, jaundice, elevated white blood cell count, and bilirubin levels, acute cholangitis is the most likely diagnosis. This condition is characterized by inflammation of the bile ducts, often due to obstruction, leading to symptoms such as pain, fever, and jaundice. The combination of right upper quadrant pain, fever, jaundice, and elevated white blood cell count and bilirubin levels suggests an infection in the biliary system, which is typical of acute cholangitis. Acute hepatitis (choice A) typically presents with elevated liver enzymes but may not have the same degree of biliary obstruction symptoms. Acute cholecystitis (choice B) usually presents with gallbladder inflammation and may not cause jaundice. Pancreatic cancer (choice D) typically presents with different symptoms and is less common in a
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The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. She is at high risk for reinfection with H. pylori.
- B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was unsuccessful.
- C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication.
- D. Dyspepsia usually improves with H. pylori eradication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The patient has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test, indicating exposure to the bacteria.
Step 2: Compliance with medical regimen suggests treatment for H. pylori infection.
Step 3: Persistence of symptoms after treatment indicates possible treatment failure.
Step 4: The urease breath test is ideal for detecting treatment failure as it directly measures the presence of H. pylori.
Step 5: Therefore, choice C is correct as it identifies the appropriate test for confirming eradication failure.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as reinfection risk is not the immediate concern.
- Choice B is incorrect as a positive serum IgG doesn't definitively indicate eradication failure.
- Choice D is incorrect as not all dyspepsia cases improve with H. pylori eradication.
A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Swallow the tablet whole.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime.
- D. Place the tablet under your tongue.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the tablet under your tongue. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used to relieve chest pain in patients with MI. Placing the tablet under the tongue allows for rapid absorption through the oral mucosa, providing quick relief. Taking it with food (A) may delay absorption. Swallowing the tablet whole (B) would result in slower absorption through the GI tract. Taking it at bedtime (C) is not necessary for immediate relief of chest pain.
An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?
- A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
- B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
- C. Prescribe celecoxib
- D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. This option is the most appropriate because it balances the need for cost-effectiveness with the concern for peptic ulcers in an elderly patient. Starting with a simple NSAID reduces the risk of adverse effects and minimizes the financial burden on the patient. Option B adds misoprostol, which may help protect the stomach but increases the cost. Option C, prescribing celecoxib, is more expensive and carries a higher cardiovascular risk. Option D, adding sucralfate, does not have strong evidence for preventing NSAID-induced ulcers and adds unnecessary cost. Therefore, option A is the most suitable choice for this scenario.
In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?
- A. A dedicated small bowel series has a high likelihood of being positive
- B. 81 mg of aspirin per day decreases the benefit of using a COX II inhibitor
- C. The patient should have a provocative arteriogram with heparin infusion to identify the source of blood loss
- D. Hormonal therapy has been shown to be effective in decreasing blood loss due to arteriovenous malformations
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 81 mg of aspirin per day decreases the benefit of using a COX II inhibitor. Aspirin, a non-selective COX inhibitor, can interfere with the action of selective COX II inhibitors by competing for the same binding site on the COX enzyme. This competition can limit the effectiveness of the COX II inhibitor in reducing inflammation and pain. This is particularly important in patients with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia who may require NSAIDs for pain management.
Option A is incorrect because a dedicated small bowel series may not necessarily be positive for identifying the source of blood loss in this patient. Option C is incorrect as a provocative arteriogram with heparin infusion is an invasive procedure and not typically indicated as a first-line investigation for blood loss in patients with iron deficiency anemia. Option D is incorrect as hormonal therapy is not typically used to decrease blood loss from arteriovenous malformations.
A 50-year-old man presents with progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus. Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Pancreatic cancer
- B. Chronic pancreatitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for a 50-year-old man with jaundice, dark urine, pruritus, and a mass in the head of the pancreas is pancreatic cancer. Pancreatic cancer commonly presents with obstructive jaundice due to compression of the common bile duct by the tumor in the head of the pancreas. This leads to dark urine (due to increased bilirubin) and pruritus. Chronic pancreatitis typically presents with recurrent abdominal pain, not progressive jaundice. Gallstones can cause obstructive jaundice but are not associated with a mass in the pancreas. Primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with jaundice, but it typically involves intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts, not the pancreas.