What is the nurse's priority when caring for a client who just completed a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy?
- A. Teach the client to avoid activity for 24 to 48 hours to prevent infection.
- B. Administer a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) to promote comfort.
- C. Check the pressure dressing frequently for signs of excessive or active bleeding.
- D. Report the laboratory results to the primary health care provider.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check the pressure dressing frequently for signs of excessive or active bleeding. This is the priority because post bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, there is a risk of bleeding due to the procedure. By checking the dressing, the nurse can assess for any signs of excessive bleeding or hematoma formation, which are crucial to prevent complications.
A: Teaching the client to avoid activity is important but not the priority immediately post-procedure.
B: Administering NSAIDs may not be appropriate as they can increase the risk of bleeding.
D: Reporting the lab results is important but not the priority over ensuring immediate post-procedure safety.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 20-month-old otherwise healthy male presents late for his 18-month well child check. During his first year of life, he took iron-fortified formula and had a point-of-care hemoglobin (Hgb) of 12 g/dL at his 1-year well child check. His mother reports that he is a picky eater but loves milk and has recently become obsessive about chewing the corners of his cardboard books. Physical examination is normal except for a flow murmur. Which combination of laboratory test results listed below would most likely characterize this patient?
- A. Hgb 8.7 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 60 fL, serum ferritin 2 ng/mL
- B. Hgb 12.0 g/dL, MCV 80 fL, serum ferritin 30 ng/mL
- C. Hgb 9.2 g/dL, MCV 60 fL, serum ferritin 30 ng/mL
- D. Hgb 11.2 g/dL, MCV 90 fL, serum ferritin 7 ng/mL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it reflects iron deficiency anemia in a 20-month-old child who is a picky eater and has pica behavior. The low hemoglobin level of 8.7 g/dL indicates anemia. The MCV of 60 fL suggests microcytic anemia, typical of iron deficiency. The serum ferritin level of 2 ng/mL confirms low iron stores.
Choice B is incorrect as the hemoglobin level is normal, MCV is higher, and serum ferritin is not indicative of iron deficiency anemia.
Choice C is incorrect as the hemoglobin level is higher, and the MCV is not consistent with iron deficiency anemia.
Choice D is incorrect as the hemoglobin level is higher, MCV is too high for iron deficiency anemia, and the serum ferritin level does not support iron deficiency.
A patient shows prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. Blood test otherwise is normal. Which of the following is the most probably diagnosis for this patient's condition?
- A. Hemophilia A
- B. Thrombocytopenia
- C. Von Willebrand factor disease
- D. Vitamin K deficiency
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vitamin K deficiency. Prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time indicate impaired blood clotting, which is characteristic of vitamin K deficiency. Vitamin K is essential for synthesizing clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Hemophilia A (choice A) is a genetic disorder resulting in deficiency of clotting factor VIII, not vitamin K-dependent factors. Thrombocytopenia (choice B) is a condition characterized by low platelet count, not affecting clotting factor synthesis. Von Willebrand factor disease (choice C) involves a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor, not related to vitamin K deficiency.
A nurse reviews the laboratory data for an older patient. The nurse would be most concerned about which finding?
- A. Hematocrit of 35%
- B. Hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 400000/L
- D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2800/L
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: White blood cell (WBC) count of 2800/L. A low WBC count (leukopenia) in an older patient can indicate an impaired immune system, making them vulnerable to infections. This is concerning as older adults have a weakened immune response. A: Hematocrit of 35% is within the normal range. B: Hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL is slightly low but not a major concern as long as it's not significantly lower. C: Platelet count of 400000/L is within the normal range and not typically a cause for concern.
A 12-year-old patient has been referred to you following complete resection with clean margins of a high-grade malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor of the shoulder region. The tumor measured approximately 4 cm in greatest dimension. A CT scan of the chest and a bone scan were within normal limits. The patient does not have evidence of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). Which of the following treatment approaches would you recommend?
- A. Chemotherapy with doxorubicin and ifosfamide
- B. Radiotherapy
- C. Chemotherapy with doxorubicin and ifosfamide plus radiotherapy
- D. Observation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Observation. Given the complete resection with clean margins, normal chest CT, bone scan, and absence of NF1, observation is appropriate. Chemotherapy or radiotherapy may be considered in the presence of residual disease, positive margins, or metastasis. Chemotherapy with doxorubicin and ifosfamide may cause unnecessary toxicity without clear benefit in this scenario. Radiotherapy may be reserved for cases with high-risk features. Combining chemotherapy and radiotherapy may lead to increased toxicity without proven benefit. Observation allows monitoring for disease recurrence while minimizing unnecessary treatment side effects.
When should autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation be used, and what are the common cancers it is used for?
- A. It should be used when high dose therapy is needed to maximize response. Most common cancers it is used for include lymphoma, late relapse of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, neuroblastoma, and Ewing sarcoma.
- B. It should be used any time this approach can provide a meaningful survival benefit over chemotherapy. Most common cancers it is used for include neuroblastoma, responsive brain tumors in young children to avoid/minimize early radiation therapy, and relapsed lymphoma.
- C. It should be used for tumors in which a graft-versus-tumor effect does not occur. Most common cancers include neuroblastoma, lymphoma, selected brain tumors, rhabdomyosarcoma, and Ewing sarcoma with lung metastases.
- D. It should be used to avoid extensive treatment with chemotherapy and to shorten treatment. Most common cancers include neuroblastoma, relapsed Wilms' tumor, and selected brain tumors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation should be used when it can provide a meaningful survival benefit over chemotherapy.
2. The most common cancers it is used for include neuroblastoma, responsive brain tumors in young children to avoid/minimize early radiation therapy, and relapsed lymphoma.
3. This choice aligns with the current guidelines and evidence-based practice in utilizing autologous stem cell transplantation for specific cancer types to improve outcomes.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Incorrect. It is not necessary to use autologous stem cell transplantation solely for high-dose therapy. The listed cancers are not the most common indications for this procedure.
C: Incorrect. The statement about the graft-versus-tumor effect is misleading, and the listed cancers are not the most common ones treated with autologous stem cell transplantation.
D: Incorrect. Autologous stem cell transplantation is not used to shorten treatment or avoid extensive chemotherapy. The listed cancers