Nokea
What is the primary BP effect of β-adrenergic blockers such as atenolol (Tenormin)?
- A. Vasodilation of arterioles by blocking movement of calcium into cells
- B. Decrease Na+ and water reabsorption by blocking the effect of aldosterone
- C. Decrease CO by decreasing rate and strength of the heart and renin secretion by the kidneys
- D. Vasodilation caused by inhibiting sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system (CNS)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: β-blockers reduce cardiac workload and renin release.
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This test measures the amount of blood the heart pumps with each beat, often used to assess heart function.
- A. Ejection fraction
- B. Cardiac output
- C. Stroke volume
- D. End-diastolic volume
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ejection fraction. Ejection fraction is the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's left ventricle with each contraction. It is a key indicator of heart function and can help diagnose heart conditions such as heart failure. Cardiac output (B) is the total amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute, not the amount pumped with each beat. Stroke volume (C) is the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one contraction, not specifically with each beat. End-diastolic volume (D) is the amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction, not the amount pumped with each beat.
Which term refers to a condition where the blood supply to part of the heart muscle is blocked, often referred to as a heart attack?
- A. Myocardial infarction
- B. Arrhythmia
- C. Stroke
- D. Aneurysm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myocardial infarction. Myocardial infarction refers to the condition where the blood supply to part of the heart muscle is blocked, leading to tissue damage or cell death. This is commonly known as a heart attack. It is crucial to understand that arrhythmia (B), stroke (C), and aneurysm (D) are different medical conditions that do not specifically involve the blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle. Arrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat, stroke is the interruption of blood supply to the brain, and an aneurysm is a bulge in a blood vessel. Therefore, the correct term for a condition involving a blocked blood supply to the heart muscle is myocardial infarction.
The nurse is giving the client digoxin for heart failure and recognizes that the drug has what type of effect on the heart?
- A. Negative inotropic, negative chronotropic effect
- B. Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic effect
- C. Negative inotropic, positive chronotropic effect
- D. Positive inotropic, positive chronotropic effect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic effect. Digoxin is a positive inotrope, meaning it increases the force of myocardial contraction, which helps improve cardiac output in heart failure. It has a negative chronotropic effect, meaning it decreases the heart rate by slowing down the electrical conduction in the heart, which can be beneficial in certain heart conditions.
Choice A (Negative inotropic, negative chronotropic effect) is incorrect because digoxin is a positive inotrope, not a negative inotrope. Choice C (Negative inotropic, positive chronotropic effect) is incorrect because digoxin does not have a positive chronotropic effect. Choice D (Positive inotropic, positive chronotropic effect) is incorrect because digoxin has a negative chronotropic effect, not a positive one.
Therefore, the correct choice is B due to the combination of positive inotropic effect and negative chronotropic effect of digoxin on the heart
A nurse responds to a telemetry alarm and determines that the client is in which rhythm, where the rate is greater than 150, diastole is shortened, and the heart does not have sufficient time to fill?
- A. Sinus bradycardia
- B. Sinus tachycardia
- C. Supraventricular Tachycardia
- D. Atrial flutter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Supraventricular tachycardia involves rapid heart rates originating above the ventricles, shortening diastolic filling time.
The client on warfarin has an INR of 3.8. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Administer vitamin K.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer vitamin K. When a client on warfarin has an INR above the therapeutic range (usually 2-3), like in this case (3.8), administering vitamin K is appropriate to reverse the anticoagulant effects. This helps prevent bleeding complications. Holding the next dose of warfarin (B) may not be sufficient to lower the INR quickly. Increasing the dose of warfarin (C) would further elevate the INR, leading to higher bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider (D) is important, but immediate action with vitamin K is necessary to address the high INR.