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What is the primary goal of using gonadotropins in fertility treatments?
- A. To suppress ovulation for egg preservation.
- B. To stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs.
- C. To prevent hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle.
- D. To enhance uterine lining growth for implantation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of using gonadotropins in fertility treatments is to stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs. This increases the chances of successful fertilization and pregnancy. Gonadotropins mimic the natural hormones that regulate ovulation and stimulate the growth of follicles in the ovaries. By producing multiple eggs, there is a higher likelihood of at least one egg being successfully fertilized.
Choice A is incorrect because gonadotropins actually stimulate ovulation rather than suppress it.
Choice C is incorrect as gonadotropins do not prevent hormonal fluctuations but rather help regulate and induce controlled hormonal changes.
Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of using gonadotropins is not to enhance uterine lining growth but rather to stimulate egg production in the ovaries.
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What is the significance of cervical mucus changes during the menstrual cycle?
- A. Cervical mucus changes confirm pregnancy.
- B. It becomes clear and stretchy during ovulation, indicating peak fertility.
- C. Cervical mucus changes have no relevance to fertility.
- D. It only occurs after ovulation and signals the end of fertility.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It becomes clear and stretchy during ovulation, indicating peak fertility. Cervical mucus changes during the menstrual cycle are important as they reflect the hormonal changes that occur. During ovulation, cervical mucus becomes clear, watery, and stretchy, resembling egg whites. This type of mucus promotes sperm survival and motility, indicating the most fertile period for conception. The other choices are incorrect because cervical mucus changes do not confirm pregnancy (A), are indeed relevant to fertility (C), and do not only occur after ovulation but actually signal peak fertility during ovulation (D).
A nurse is offering preconception counseling in a primary care clinic. Which statement by a patient indicates a need for correction?
- A. Pregnancy rates are not related to the age of the male partner.
- B. Sexually active males should be routinely tested for STIs and treated appropriately.
- C. Maintaining a healthy weight is important for the reproductive health of both female and male partners.
- D. Certain medications, such as testosterone supplementation and chemotherapy, can impact male fertility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pregnancy rates are indeed related to the age of the male partner because sperm quality and quantity decline with age. This is crucial information in preconception counseling. Choice B is correct as STI testing for sexually active males is important for reproductive health. Choice C is correct as maintaining a healthy weight is crucial for both partners' fertility. Choice D is correct as certain medications can impact male fertility. In summary, the incorrect choice (A) contradicts established knowledge about male age and fertility, making it the correct answer.
What is the purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments?
- A. To trigger ovulation directly.
- B. To prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation.
- C. To stimulate the growth of the uterine lining.
- D. To improve egg quality in natural cycles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments is to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation. GnRH antagonists work by blocking the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which can trigger premature ovulation. This allows for better control of the timing of ovulation in assisted reproductive techniques.
Choice A is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not trigger ovulation directly; they prevent it. Choice C is incorrect because stimulating the growth of the uterine lining is typically achieved through other medications like estrogen. Choice D is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not directly improve egg quality; they primarily target ovulation timing.
When assessing cervical effacement of a client in labor, the nurse assesses which characteristic?
- A. extent of opening to its widest diameter
- B. degree of thinning
- C. passage of the mucous plug
- D. fetal presenting part
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cervical effacement refers to the degree of thinning of the cervix, not the extent of opening. This assessment is important in determining progress in labor. The other options are not related to cervical effacement.
A nurse is educating a patient about frozen embryo transfer (FET). What should be emphasized?
- A. FET requires daily hormone injections for success.
- B. FET involves transferring previously frozen embryos into the uterus.
- C. FET is only performed if natural conception is impossible.
- D. FET guarantees a successful pregnancy outcome.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FET involves transferring previously frozen embryos into the uterus. This is because FET is a process where frozen embryos from a previous IVF cycle are thawed and transferred into the uterus. The other choices are incorrect: A is false as hormone injections may not be required daily, C is false as FET can be done for various reasons beyond just natural conception issues, and D is false as success is not guaranteed in any fertility treatment.