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What is the primary purpose of Preimplantation Genetic Testing (PGT) in IVF?
- A. To increase the number of embryos available for transfer.
- B. To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before implantation.
- C. To enhance uterine receptivity for implantation.
- D. To stimulate egg production during ovarian stimulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before implantation. PGT is used to screen embryos for genetic disorders before implantation in IVF to prevent the transmission of genetic diseases to the offspring. By identifying abnormalities, only healthy embryos are selected for transfer, increasing the chances of a successful pregnancy. Other choices are incorrect as PGT does not directly impact the number of embryos available (A), uterine receptivity (C), or egg production (D) during IVF.
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Once oogenesis is complete, the resultant gamete cell contains how many chromosomes?
- A. 23
- B. 46
- C. 47
- D. 92
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oogenesis results in a haploid gamete with 23 chromosomes.
What is the significance of a semen analysis in evaluating infertility?
- A. It determines the number, shape, and movement of sperm.
- B. It checks for genetic conditions affecting sperm.
- C. It monitors hormone levels in males.
- D. It identifies infections in the reproductive tract.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a semen analysis assesses important parameters such as sperm count, morphology (shape), and motility (movement), which are crucial factors in male fertility. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm available for fertilization. Morphology assesses the structural integrity of sperm, while motility determines their ability to reach and fertilize an egg. These parameters directly impact fertility potential.
Choice B is incorrect because a semen analysis does not specifically check for genetic conditions affecting sperm. Choice C is incorrect as hormone levels are not directly evaluated in a semen analysis. Choice D is incorrect because while infections can affect fertility, they are not the primary focus of a standard semen analysis.
A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of preconception education. Which statement by the client indicates that additional education is needed?
- A. I know smoking is harmful in pregnancy, so I plan to quit soon. My husband has agreed to avoid smoking in my presence.
- B. I have started taking a daily prenatal vitamin with folic acid.
- C. My husband bought a small desk for his laptop computer.
- D. We plan to avoid the use of chemicals in our garden this year.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the statement about the husband buying a small desk for his laptop computer is irrelevant to preconception education. The focus of preconception education is on optimizing health before pregnancy, such as quitting smoking, taking prenatal vitamins, and avoiding harmful chemicals. The other choices (A, B, and D) all demonstrate an understanding of preconception health needs. Choice A shows awareness of the risks of smoking in pregnancy and a plan to quit. Choice B indicates the initiation of prenatal vitamin intake, particularly folic acid, which is crucial for preventing birth defects. Choice D highlights a proactive approach to environmental health by planning to avoid harmful chemicals in the garden.
A patient undergoing ovarian stimulation reports mild bloating and abdominal discomfort. What is the nurse's appropriate response?
- A. These symptoms may indicate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome and need monitoring.
- B. These symptoms are not related to ovarian stimulation.
- C. Abdominal discomfort guarantees successful ovulation.
- D. These symptoms suggest the treatment is ineffective.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bloating and abdominal discomfort can be early signs of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, a serious condition that requires monitoring. Choice B is incorrect as these symptoms can indeed be related to ovarian stimulation. Choice C is incorrect as abdominal discomfort does not guarantee successful ovulation. Choice D is incorrect as these symptoms do not necessarily suggest treatment ineffectiveness. Monitoring and assessing for signs of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome are crucial in this scenario.
A nurse is caring for several women in labor. The nurse determines that which woman is the latent phase of labor?
- A. contractions every 5 minutes, cervical dilation 3 cm
- B. contractions every 3 minutes, cervical dilation 6 cm
- C. contractions every 2 1/2 minutes, cervical dilation 8 cm
- D. contractions every 1 minute, cervical dilation 9 cm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Contractions every 5 minutes with cervical dilation of 3 cm is typical of the latent phase of labor. This phase is characterized by early labor with mild contractions and slow cervical dilation. The other scenarios describe more advanced stages of labor with faster contractions and greater cervical dilation, indicating the active phase.