Nokea
What is the primary structural difference between the male and female urethra?
- A. The male urethra has two functions, whereas the female urethra has one.
- B. The male urethra is up to three times as long as the female urethra.
- C. The female urethra is less protected than the male urethra.
- D. The female urethra is connected directly to the bladder.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The male urethra is up to three times as long as the female urethra. This is because the male urethra serves a dual function - for both urine and semen passage, requiring a longer length for transportation. In contrast, the female urethra is shorter and primarily functions for urine passage only. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the primary structural difference in length between the male and female urethra.
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After Sam fathers five children, he and his wife decide that he should have a vasectomy, which is a cutting and removal of a small section of each vas deferens. Why will this cause Sam to be infertile?
- A. It will become impossible for him to ejaculate during coitus.
- B. The sperm will not be able to get from the epididymis to the urethra.
- C. He will no longer produce sperm.
- D. The seminal fluid will be too acidic for the sperm to survive.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Vasectomy involves cutting and removing a small section of each vas deferens, the tubes that carry sperm from the testicles to the urethra.
Step 2: By severing the vas deferens, sperm are physically blocked from reaching the urethra.
Step 3: Without the ability for sperm to travel through the vas deferens to the urethra, they cannot be ejaculated during coitus.
Step 4: Therefore, choice B is correct - the sperm will not be able to get from the epididymis to the urethra, causing infertility.
Summary:
Choice A is incorrect because ejaculation is the release of semen, not sperm. Choice C is incorrect as the testicles continue to produce sperm, but the sperm cannot reach the urethra. Choice D is incorrect as the acidity of seminal fluid does not affect the ability of sperm to travel through the vas deferens.
During the postovulatory phase of the cycle, the greatest percentage of progesterone is produced by the:
- A. Corpus albicans
- B. Corpus luteum
- C. Primary graafian follicle
- D. Uterus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The corpus luteum is the primary source of progesterone during the postovulatory phase.
If the postpartum uterine fundus is boggy on palpation, the nurse does which of the following?
- A. notifies the physician immediately
- B. massages the uterus until it feels firm
- C. re-examines the fundus in 15-20 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Massaging a boggy fundus helps stimulate uterine contractions and prevent postpartum hemorrhage.
Which option could be used for the treatment and management of a patient who reports mild pain associated with a clinical diagnosis of fibrocystic breast disease?
- A. Chamomile tea as a relaxant therapy
- B. C M U S N T O
- C. Danazol (Danocrin
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I apologize for the incomplete question, making it impossible to provide a correct answer and rationale. To effectively analyze and provide a detailed explanation, I would need complete information regarding the potential treatment options and their relevance to managing fibrocystic breast disease.
Which of the following statements about the nurse's medical record documentation is correct?
- A. it provides an accurate account of patient status and response to care
- B. it consists of both objective and subjective notes regarding the patient and care provided
- C. the physician's medical record documentation is more important than the nurse's medical record documentation in legal proceeding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Accurate documentation is crucial for legal and clinical purposes, providing a clear record of patient care.