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What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
- A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
- B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
- C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50
- D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50.
2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland.
3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment.
4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer.
5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer.
6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
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The new nurse is caring for six patients in this shift. After completing their assessments, the nurse asks where to begin in developing care plans for these patients. Which statement is an appropriate suggestion by another nurse?
- A. “Choose all the interventions and perform them in order of time needed for each one.”
- B. “Make sure you identify the scientific rationale for each intervention first.”
- C. “Decide on goals and outcomes you have chosen for the patients.”
- D. “Begin with the highest priority diagnoses, then select appropriate interventions.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Begin with the highest priority diagnoses, then select appropriate interventions."
Rationale:
1. Start with the highest priority diagnoses: Prioritizing care based on the patients' most critical needs ensures their safety and well-being.
2. Identify appropriate interventions: Select interventions that directly address the priority diagnoses to promote effective care delivery.
3. Tailor interventions to individual needs: By focusing on high-priority diagnoses, the nurse can personalize care plans for each patient.
4. Ensure efficient use of resources: Addressing critical issues first optimizes time and resources for the most impactful outcomes.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Performing interventions based on time needed may not address the most critical patient needs.
B: Incorrect. While scientific rationale is important, it should come after identifying priority diagnoses.
C: Incorrect. Setting goals and outcomes should follow the identification of high-priority diagnoses for effective care planning.
An adult has a central line in his right subclavian vein. The nurse is to change the tubing. Which of the following should be done?
- A. Use the present solution with the new tubing
- B. Connect the new tubing to the hub prior to running any fluid through the tubing
- C. Close the roller clamp on the new tubing after priming it
- D. Have the client roll to the right side to prevent an air embolus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Close the roller clamp on the new tubing after priming it. This step ensures that the tubing is primed with the solution and ready for use while preventing air from entering the central line. Option A is incorrect because using the present solution may introduce contamination. Option B is incorrect as connecting tubing before running fluid can introduce air into the line. Option D is incorrect as positioning the client on the right side does not prevent air embolism during tubing change.
Which of the following statements would be the nurse's response to a famiiy member asking questions about a client's transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
- A. "I think you should ask the doctor. Would you like me to cail him for you?"
- B. " The blood supply to the brain has decreased causing permanent brain damage."
- C. "It Is a temporary interruption in the blood flow to the brain."
- D. "TIA means a transient ischemic attack."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "It is a temporary interruption in the blood flow to the brain." This response is correct because it accurately describes a transient ischemic attack (TIA) as a temporary condition where blood flow to the brain is briefly interrupted. This explanation is clear, concise, and provides the family member with an accurate understanding of TIA.
Choice A is incorrect because it deflects the question and suggests involving the doctor unnecessarily. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately states that TIA causes permanent brain damage, which is not true. Choice D is incorrect as it simply defines the acronym without providing any meaningful information about what TIA actually is.
A nurse is getting ready to discharge a patient who has a problem with physical mobility. What does the nurse need to do before discontinuing the patient’s plan of care?
- A. Determine whether the patient has transportation to get home.
- B. Evaluate whether patient goals and outcomes have been met.
- C. Establish whether the patient has a follow-up appointment scheduled.
- D. Ensure that the patient’s prescriptions have been filled to take home. NursingStoreRN
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because before discontinuing a patient's plan of care related to physical mobility, the nurse needs to evaluate whether the patient goals and outcomes have been met. This step ensures that the patient has achieved the desired level of physical mobility improvement and is ready to safely continue their care at home.
A: Determining whether the patient has transportation to get home is important but not directly related to the patient's physical mobility goals and outcomes.
C: Establishing a follow-up appointment is important but does not directly address the evaluation of the patient's physical mobility improvement.
D: Ensuring that the patient's prescriptions are filled is crucial for medication management but does not specifically evaluate the patient's physical mobility progress.
The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?
- A. Space the administration every 4 hours.
- B. Use the drug for a short time only
- C. Take piroxicam with food or oral antacid
- D. Decrease the piroxicam dosage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take piroxicam with food or oral antacid. This instruction helps to reduce GI irritation by providing a protective barrier for the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effect on prostaglandin synthesis. Taking it with food or an antacid can help minimize this side effect.
Choice A (Space the administration every 4 hours) does not address the issue of GI irritation and is not a recommended strategy for preventing this side effect.
Choice B (Use the drug for a short time only) is not a direct intervention to prevent GI upset and does not provide guidance on how to manage the side effect when taking the medication.
Choice D (Decrease the piroxicam dosage) may not be necessary if the client can manage the side effects with the simple intervention of taking it with food or an antacid.