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What type of dystocia occurs when the fetal head is unable to navigate through the pelvis?
- A. uterine dystocia
- B. fetal dystocia
- C. pelvic dystocia
- D. contraction dystocia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: pelvic dystocia. Pelvic dystocia occurs when the fetal head is unable to navigate through the pelvis due to its size, shape, or orientation. This can lead to prolonged labor and potential complications during delivery. Uterine dystocia (A) refers to abnormalities in uterine contractions, fetal dystocia (B) pertains to issues with the fetus itself, and contraction dystocia (D) involves problems with the strength or coordination of uterine contractions. Pelvic dystocia specifically addresses the anatomical mismatch between the fetal head and maternal pelvis, making it the correct choice in this scenario.
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What intervention may be used to manage failure to descend during labor?
- A. administering pain medication
- B. allowing the patient to rest
- C. continuing to push for an extended period of time
- D. using forceps or a vacuum to assist delivery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using forceps or a vacuum to assist delivery can help manage failure to descend during labor by aiding in the descent of the baby through the birth canal. Forceps or vacuum extraction can provide the necessary assistance to safely deliver the baby when maternal pushing alone is insufficient.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Administering pain medication does not address the underlying issue of failure to descend during labor.
B: Allowing the patient to rest may not resolve the issue of failure to descend and could potentially delay necessary interventions.
C: Continuing to push for an extended period of time without progress can lead to maternal exhaustion and fetal distress without addressing the root cause of failure to descend.
The physician has ordered an amnioinfusion for the laboring patient. Which data supports the use of this therapeutic procedure?
- A. Presenting part not engaged
- B. +4 meconium-stained amniotic fluid on artificial rupture of membranes (AROM)
- C. Breech position of fetus
- D. Twin gestation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because +4 meconium-stained amniotic fluid on AROM indicates meconium passage by the fetus, which can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome. Amnioinfusion can help dilute the meconium, reducing the risk of respiratory complications for the newborn.
A: Presenting part not engaged is not a direct indication for amnioinfusion.
C: Breech position of the fetus does not specifically warrant amnioinfusion.
D: Twin gestation alone is not a direct indication for amnioinfusion.
Which of the following is theN pUriRorSitIy NinGteTrvBen.tiConO fMor the patient in a left side-lying position whose monitor strip shows a deceleration that extends beyond the end of the contraction?
- A. Administer O at 8 to 10 L/minut
- B. Decrease the IV rate to 100 mL/hour.
- C. Reposition the ultrasound transducer.
- D. Perform a vaginal exam to assess for cord prolaps
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer O at 8 to 10 L/minut. In a left side-lying position, this deceleration indicates possible umbilical cord compression, reducing oxygen supply to the fetus. Administering oxygen at 8 to 10 L/min can help improve fetal oxygenation. Decreasing the IV rate (B) wouldn't directly address the fetal distress. Repositioning the ultrasound transducer (C) is irrelevant to the situation. Performing a vaginal exam (D) could worsen the cord compression if the cord is prolapsed.
Which clinical finding would be considered normal for a preterm fetus during the labor period?
- A. Baseline tachycardia
- B. Baseline bradycardia
- C. Fetal anemia
- D. Acidosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Baseline tachycardia. During labor, it is normal for a preterm fetus to have a higher heart rate due to the stress of the labor process. This is a physiological response to the stress and is considered normal. Baseline bradycardia (choice B) would not be normal as it indicates fetal distress. Fetal anemia (choice C) can affect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and lead to fetal distress. Acidosis (choice D) results from inadequate oxygen supply and accumulation of acid in the blood, indicating fetal distress.
A nurse is reviewing the record of a woman who has just been told that she is pregnant. The physician has documented the presence of Goodell’s sign. The nurse determines this sign refers to which of the following?
- A. A softening of the tip of the cervix
- B. A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse
- C. Enlargement of the uterus
- D. A softening of the lower uterine segment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A softening of the tip of the cervix. Goodell's sign is a softening of the tip of the cervix, which is one of the early signs of pregnancy due to increased vascularity and edema. This sign is often used by healthcare providers to confirm pregnancy.
Rationale:
1. Goodell's sign specifically refers to the softening of the cervix, not any other part of the reproductive system.
2. It is an important early sign of pregnancy due to hormonal changes.
3. Enlargement of the uterus (Choice C) typically occurs later in pregnancy, not as an early sign.
4. A blowing sound corresponding to maternal pulse (Choice B) and softening of the lower uterine segment (Choice D) are not associated with Goodell's sign.