What virus is highly contagious, spread through airborne particles, and can cause intrauterine fetal demise, skin scarring, eye, limb or neurologic abnormalities, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and low birth weight in the fetus?
- A. toxoplasmosis
- B. syphilis
- C. rubella
- D. Varicella (chickenpox)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Varicella (chickenpox). Varicella virus is highly contagious and spreads through airborne particles. It can cause intrauterine fetal demise, skin scarring, eye, limb, or neurologic abnormalities, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and low birth weight in the fetus. Varicella infection during pregnancy can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the fetus. Toxoplasmosis (A), syphilis (B), and rubella (C) can also cause complications during pregnancy, but they do not match all the characteristics mentioned in the question.
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A patient has tested HIV-positive and has now discovered that she is pregnant. Which statement indicates that she understands the risks of this diagnosis?
- A. “I know I will need to have an abortion as soon as possible.”
- B. “Even though my test is positive, my baby might not be affected.”
- C. “My baby is certain to have AIDS and die within the first year of life.”
- D. “This pregnancy will probably decrease the chance that I will develop AIDS.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it shows understanding that a positive HIV test in the mother doesn't guarantee transmission to the baby. This reflects knowledge of the possibility of preventing mother-to-child transmission with proper medical care. Option A is incorrect as abortion is not the standard recommendation for HIV-positive pregnant women. Option C is incorrect as not all babies born to HIV-positive mothers will have AIDS or die within the first year. Option D is incorrect as pregnancy does not decrease the mother's chance of developing AIDS.
Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
- A. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- B. Complaint of frequent mild nausea
- C. Fundal height measurement of 18 cm
- D. History of bright red spotting for 1 day weeks ago
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fundal height measurement of 18 cm. At 10 weeks of gestation, the fundal height should typically measure around 10-12 cm. A fundal height measurement of 18 cm would suggest excessive growth, which is a characteristic finding in a hydatidiform mole due to abnormal proliferation of placental tissue.
Incorrect choices:
A: Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal range and not specific to hydatidiform mole.
B: Complaint of frequent mild nausea is a common symptom in early pregnancy and not specific to a mole.
D: History of bright red spotting for 1 day weeks ago is more indicative of a potential previous miscarriage, not necessarily a mole.
Which instructions should the nurse include when teaching a pregnant patient with Class II heart disease?
- A. Advise her to gain at least 30 lb.
- B. Instruct her to avoid strenuous activity.
- C. Inform her of the need to limit fluid intake.
- D. Explain the importance of a diet high in calcium.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instruct her to avoid strenuous activity. For a pregnant patient with Class II heart disease, avoiding strenuous activity is crucial to prevent excessive strain on the heart. Strenuous activities can lead to increased heart rate and blood pressure, which can worsen the heart condition. Advising her to gain at least 30 lb (choice A) may put additional strain on the heart. Limiting fluid intake (choice C) can lead to dehydration, affecting blood volume and circulation. A diet high in calcium (choice D) is beneficial for overall health but is not specifically related to managing Class II heart disease during pregnancy.
A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
- A. gastrointestinal upset.
- B. effects of magnesium sulfate.
- C. anxiety caused by hospitalization.
- D. worsening disease and impending convulsion.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the symptoms described (headache, visual changes, epigastric pain) are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating impending eclampsia with seizures. This requires urgent intervention to prevent serious complications. Option A is incorrect as gastrointestinal upset does not typically present with these specific signs. Option B is incorrect as magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia, not cause the symptoms described. Option C is incorrect as anxiety would not cause the specific symptoms mentioned. In summary, the signs described point towards worsening disease and the likelihood of impending convulsions, necessitating immediate medical attention.
A high-risk labor patient progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Aggressive management is instituted, and the fetus is delivered via cesarean birth. Which finding in the immediate postoperative period indicates that the patient is at risk of developing HELLP syndrome?
- A. Platelet count of 50,000/mcL
- B. Liver enzyme levels within normal range
- C. Negative for edema
- D. No evidence of nausea or vomiting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. In HELLP syndrome, there is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. A platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, a key feature of HELLP syndrome. It signifies ongoing coagulation abnormalities and liver dysfunction.
B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range is incorrect as HELLP syndrome typically presents with elevated liver enzymes.
C: Negative for edema is incorrect as edema is not a defining characteristic of HELLP syndrome.
D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is incorrect as these symptoms are not specific to HELLP syndrome.