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When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:
- A. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse."?
- B. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse."?
- C. "The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5.3 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you."?
- D. "We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year."?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.
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A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?
- A. lungs
- B. liver
- C. kidneys
- D. adrenal glands
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An overdose of acetaminophen can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although prolonged use of acetaminophen may lead to an increased risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose does not typically cause life-threatening abnormalities in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands.
The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?
- A. nausea
- B. headache
- C. vertigo
- D. tinnitus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.
All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:
- A. hot flashes
- B. loss of reproductive ability
- C. headaches
- D. heart palpitations
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.
When administering a nasal spray medication, what should the client do before the medication is administered?
- A. The client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered.
- B. The medication should be sprayed into the nostril.
- C. The medication should be administered as the client inhales.
- D. The client should sit upright when the medication is administered.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered. This step helps clear the nasal passages, ensuring that the medication can reach its intended target. Choice B is incorrect as the nasal spray should be directed into the nostril, not just in front of the nose. Administering the medication as the client inhales (Choice C) is crucial to ensure proper delivery, as it helps the medication reach the desired areas. Choice D is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright, not lying flat, when administering nasal spray medication to allow for better absorption and prevent the medication from flowing out.
During a health assessment interview, the client tells the nurse that she has some vaginal drainage. The client is concerned that it may indicate a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which statement should the nurse make to the client?
- A. When was your last gynecological checkup?'
- B. Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?'
- C. Don't worry about the discharge. Some vaginal discharge is normal.'
- D. I need some more information about the discharge. What color is it?'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: If the client reports having vaginal drainage and concerns about a possible STI, it is essential for the nurse to gather more information about the discharge. Asking about the color of the discharge helps in determining its characteristics, which can be crucial in identifying potential causes. The color, consistency, odor, and associated symptoms can provide valuable insights into the underlying issue. Statements A and B are relevant questions but not as immediate or specific to addressing the client's concern about the discharge. Statement C dismisses the client's worries and does not encourage further assessment, which is not appropriate in this context.