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When is Aspirin most effective when taken?
- A. On an empty stomach with cold water
- B. On a full stomach after a meal
- C. With a glass of fruit juice
- D. First thing in the morning
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aspirin is best absorbed on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. Taking it with cold water helps to enhance absorption. Choice B is incorrect as taking aspirin on a full stomach may reduce its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as fruit juice can sometimes interact with medications. Choice D is incorrect as taking aspirin first thing in the morning may not optimize its absorption.
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A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?
- A. Potassium
- B. Calcium
- C. Iron
- D. Zinc
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. In renal failure, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc are not typically restricted in chronic renal failure unless there are specific individual circumstances, making them incorrect choices.
Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?
- A. Iron absorption is reduced
- B. Gastritis may cause bleeding
- C. Iron stores turn over more quickly
- D. Patients have an aversion to foods that are good sources of iron
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can occur due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia. Choice A is incorrect because iron absorption is not necessarily reduced in hiatal hernia. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turnover rate is not directly related to the development of anemia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods is not a common reason for anemia in patients with hiatal hernia.
The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?
- A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
- B. Erb's point
- C. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
- D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Second intercostal space, right sternal border. The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border, where the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the recommended anatomical positions for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis.
When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position herself?
- A. At the client's back
- B. At the client's right side
- C. At the client's left side
- D. In front of a sitting client
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position herself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Placing oneself in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as positioning at the back or sides of the client may hinder proper assessment due to limited visibility and access to the neck area.
Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Hepatic encephalopathy
- C. Ulcerative colitis in remission
- D. Acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Enteral feedings are commonly utilized for patients experiencing acute exacerbations of Crohn's disease to provide necessary nutrition and rest the bowel. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enteral feedings are not typically indicated for acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, or ulcerative colitis in remission.