Nokea
When planning care for a 8-year-old boy with Down syndrome, the nurse should:
- A. Plan interventions according to the developmental level of a 7-year-old child because that’s the child’s age
- B. Plan interventions according to the developmental levels of a 5-year-old because the child will have developmental delays
- C. Assess the child’s current developmental level and plan care accordingly
- D. Direct all teaching to the parents because the child can’t understand
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Care should be individualized based on the child’s current developmental level, not just their chronological age or assumptions about delays.
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An adolescent female has a history of repaired tetralogy of Fallot (TOF). Which long-term complication is a concern for this patient?
- A. Aortic stenosis
- B. Chronic cyanosis
- C. Mitral valve prolapse
- D. Ventricular failure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patients with repaired TOF, especially adolescent females, are at risk for mitral valve prolapse.
Regarding immunoglobins:
- A. IgG2 concentrations increase with age
- B. IgD is useful in mediating the late features of allergic reactions
- C. IgG2 subclass deficiency is associated with IgA deficiency
- D. IgM is complement-fixing antibody
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: IgM is complement-fixing antibody
All of the following are true regarding attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), except
- A. Dopamine transporter gene (DAT1) and dopamine 4 receptor gene (DRD4) are implicated in the diagnosis
- B. Impaired fine motor movement and poor coordination are 'soft' but specific signs of ADHD
- C. Developmentally inappropriate behavior must commence before 7 years of age and present for at least 6 months
- D. Maternal lead exposure is associated with ADHD
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Impaired fine motor movement and poor coordination are not specific signs of ADHD; they are nonspecific and can occur in other conditions.
What is ONE gene mutation typically associated with Marfan’s syndrome?
- A. FBN1
- B. ACTA2
- C. SIX2
- D. TGFBR2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The FBN1 mutation is the most commonly identified genetic mutation associated with Marfan's syndrome.
Blueberry muffin' lesions seen in rubella is due to
- A. Dermal erythropoiesis
- B. Thrombocytopenia
- C. Ecchymosis
- D. Vasculitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Blueberry muffin' lesions in congenital rubella are due to dermal erythropoiesis, where extramedullary hematopoiesis occurs in the skin.