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When providing care for a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks of gestation, which medication should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe to hasten fetal lung maturity?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Betamethasone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that promotes fetal lung maturity by stimulating the production of surfactant, essential for lung function.
Step 2: At 32 weeks, the fetus may benefit from accelerated lung development to reduce respiratory distress.
Step 3: Calcium gluconate is used for hypocalcemia, not for fetal lung maturity.
Step 4: Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug used to delay preterm labor, not for lung maturity.
Step 5: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker to prevent preterm labor, not for fetal lung maturity.
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A healthcare provider in a clinic is reinforcing teaching with a client of childbearing age about recommended folic acid supplements. Which of the following defects can occur in the fetus or neonate as a result of folic acid deficiency?
- A. Iron deficiency anemia
- B. Poor bone formation
- C. Macrosomic fetus
- D. Neural tube defects
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Neural tube defects. Folic acid is crucial for neural tube development in the fetus. Without sufficient folic acid, neural tube defects like spina bifida can occur. Iron deficiency anemia (A) is not directly related to folic acid deficiency. Poor bone formation (B) is more associated with calcium and vitamin D deficiencies. Macrosomic fetus (C) refers to excessive fetal growth, not a direct consequence of folic acid deficiency. In summary, folic acid deficiency primarily increases the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus or neonate.
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?
- A. Nifedipine
- B. Pyridoxine
- C. Ferrous sulfate
- D. Calcium gluconate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium gluconate. When magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected, calcium gluconate is administered because it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the heart and central nervous system. This helps to counteract the muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrhythmias associated with magnesium toxicity. Nifedipine (A) is a calcium channel blocker and is not indicated for magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine (B) is a form of vitamin B6 and is not used to treat magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate (C) is an iron supplement and is not relevant in the management of magnesium toxicity.
A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. A newborn who is 26 hours old and has erythema toxicum on their face
- B. A newborn who is 32 hours old and has not passed meconium stool
- C. A newborn who is 12 hours old and has pink-tinged urine
- D. A newborn who is 18 hours old and has an axillary temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an axillary temperature of 37.7°C (99.9°F) in a newborn is above the normal range and could indicate a fever, which is a significant concern in newborns due to their immature immune systems. Fever in newborns can be a sign of serious infections that require immediate medical attention.
A: Erythema toxicum is a common rash in newborns and typically resolves on its own without medical intervention.
B: Failure to pass meconium stool by 48 hours may be a concern but not as urgent as a fever.
C: Pink-tinged urine in the first few days of life is likely due to uric acid crystals and is considered normal in newborns.
A client who is at 22 weeks of gestation reports concern about the blotchy hyperpigmentation on her forehead. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist.
- B. Explain to the client this is an expected occurrence.
- C. Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D.
- D. Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The blotchy hyperpigmentation on the client's forehead is likely melasma, a common occurrence during pregnancy. This is due to hormonal changes causing increased melanin production. The nurse should educate the client that this is an expected occurrence during pregnancy and reassure her that it is usually temporary and will fade postpartum.
Choice A (Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist) is incorrect because dermatological consultation is not typically necessary for melasma during pregnancy.
Choice C (Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D) is incorrect because vitamin D deficiency is not typically associated with blotchy hyperpigmentation on the forehead during pregnancy.
Choice D (Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products) is incorrect because melasma is not caused by allergies to skincare products.
A client who is postpartum is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. For which of the following clinical manifestations should the client be instructed to monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Persistent abdominal striae
- B. Temperature 37.8° C (100.2° F)
- C. Unilateral breast pain
- D. Brownish-red discharge on day 5
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Unilateral breast pain in a postpartum client can indicate mastitis, a bacterial infection of the breast tissue. This requires prompt medical attention to prevent complications like abscess formation.
Other Choices:
A: Abdominal striae are normal after pregnancy and don't require immediate intervention.
B: Mild temperature elevation is common postpartum and doesn't necessarily indicate infection.
D: Brownish-red discharge on day 5 is typically normal lochia and not concerning unless foul-smelling or accompanied by fever.