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When should a critical pathway be revised?
- A. When it becomes too long.
- B. When the variances show a new trend.
- C. When a member of the team retires.
- D. When the client leaves the hospital.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A critical pathway should be revised when variances in the patient's progress indicate a new trend or deviation from the expected course of treatment. This allows healthcare providers to adjust the pathway to ensure optimal patient care and outcomes. Changes in the critical pathway are not typically driven by its length or external factors like team member retirements or client discharges. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is incorrect because the length of the critical pathway alone does not determine the need for revision. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the patient's progress and treatment plan, making them incorrect.
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What is the main purpose of a patient satisfaction survey?
- A. To improve patient outcomes
- B. To evaluate nursing performance
- C. To measure patient satisfaction
- D. To assess healthcare facilities
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The main purpose of a patient satisfaction survey is to measure patient satisfaction. These surveys aim to gather feedback directly from patients regarding their experiences and perceptions of the healthcare services they have received. Choice A is incorrect because while patient satisfaction may impact outcomes indirectly, the primary goal of the survey is not to directly improve patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as patient satisfaction surveys are not primarily focused on evaluating nursing performance specifically. Choice D is also incorrect as the main focus of the survey is on the satisfaction of patients rather than assessing healthcare facilities.
Staff refuse to report unsafe conditions, with unattended entrances throughout the health care facility noted. Unidentified individuals are wandering the unit at night, and you:
- A. Establish expectations.
- B. Demand that they leave immediately.
- C. Ask them to leave.
- D. Observe their behaviors.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct course of action is to establish expectations. By setting clear guidelines and expectations, you can address the issue of unidentified individuals wandering the unit at night in a proactive manner. This approach helps communicate what behaviors are acceptable, ensuring the safety of both staff and patients. Demanding that they leave immediately or simply observing their behaviors may not effectively address the root cause of the problem and could potentially escalate the situation. Asking them to leave without establishing expectations may not prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future.
What is the primary focus of the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI)?
- A. Patient safety
- B. Cost reduction
- C. Healthcare innovation
- D. Research funding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary focus of the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) is patient safety. IHI is renowned for its efforts in developing and implementing evidence-based practices to enhance patient safety and improve the quality of care in healthcare settings. While cost reduction, healthcare innovation, and research funding are important aspects of healthcare, the core mission of the IHI revolves around prioritizing patient safety by reducing medical errors, enhancing care processes, and creating a safer environment for patients.
Why is increasing the use of advanced practice nurses encouraged?
- A. A 2010 Institute of Medicine report recommended nurses practice to the full extent of their education.
- B. Advanced practice nurses act as an extension of physicians.
- C. The National League for Nursing advocates for the master of science in nursing (MSN) as the terminal degree for nurse practitioners.
- D. Advanced practice nurses lack the skills to diagnose.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the 2010 Institute of Medicine report recommended that nurses practice to the full extent of their education, which includes utilizing advanced practice nurses. This supports the efficient delivery of healthcare services. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the relationship between advanced practice nurses and physicians rather than a reason for increasing their use. Choice C is not a direct reason for increasing the use of advanced practice nurses but rather a statement about the terminal degree for nurse practitioners. Choice D is incorrect as advanced practice nurses do possess the skills necessary to diagnose and provide advanced care.
Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs? (EXCEPT)
- A. Hours of care provided
- B. Ancillary staff
- C. Procedures to be done
- D. Types of patients
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When calculating the Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.