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Which adverse reaction poses the greatest life-threatening risk when taking Omeprazole?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Constipation
- C. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea
- D. Acute interstitial nephritis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most life-threatening adverse reaction associated with Omeprazole is Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. This condition can be severe and life-threatening due to the potential for dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and complications such as toxic megacolon. Chest pain, constipation, and acute interstitial nephritis are potential side effects of Omeprazole but are not considered as life-threatening as Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. Monitoring for signs of this adverse reaction is crucial, and immediate medical attention should be sought if symptoms develop.
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A client with cancer and a prescription for methotrexate PO reports bleeding gums while being assessed by a nurse in a provider's clinic. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Explain to the client that this is an expected adverse effect.
- B. Check the value of the client's current platelet count.
- C. Instruct the client to use an electric toothbrush.
- D. Have the client make an appointment to see the dentist.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on methotrexate reports bleeding gums is to check the client's current platelet count. Bleeding gums may indicate thrombocytopenia, a decreased platelet count which can be a severe side effect of methotrexate therapy. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial for early detection and management of this potentially life-threatening complication. Choice A is incorrect as bleeding gums in this context may not be an expected adverse effect of methotrexate. Choice C is irrelevant and does not address the potential underlying issue of thrombocytopenia. Choice D is not the primary action needed at this point; checking the platelet count is more urgent to assess the severity of the situation.
A solution for the eyes
- A. effervescent
- B. mucilage
- C. spirits
- D. collyria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Collyria refers to eye drops or an eye lotion that is used to treat eye conditions. When the question is asking for a solution for the eyes, collyria is the most appropriate choice among the options given. Effervescent, mucilage, and spirits do not specifically relate to eye treatments. Collodion is a type of liquid adhesive used in medical settings, but it is not primarily intended for eye-related issues. Therefore, collyria is the correct solution for the eyes.
When educating a patient about Regular Insulin, you should include which instruction: ATI PHARMACOLOGY LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 PROCTORED EXAM -STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS & ANS 100% CORRECTLY VERIFIED GRADED A+ ATI PHARMACOLOGY LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 PROCTORED EXAM -STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS & ANS 100% CORRECTLY VERIFIED GRADED A+
- A. Shake the vial vigorously
- B. Expect the solution to appear cloudy
- C. Store unopened vials at room
- D. Inject the insulin subcutaneously
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is important to educate a patient that Regular Insulin should be injected subcutaneously to ensure proper absorption of the medication. Injecting the insulin into the subcutaneous tissue allows for a slower and more consistent absorption of the medication, which helps in controlling blood glucose levels effectively. Administering insulin subcutaneously also minimizes the risk of complications associated with other injection sites or techniques.
The nurse notes in the patient™s medication orders that the patient will be taking ibutilide (Corvert). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
- A. Ventricular ectopy
- B. Atrial fibrillation
- C. Supraventricular tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibutilide (Corvert) is a class III antiarrhythmic medication primarily used for the treatment of atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter. It works by prolonging the action potential duration and refractory period of atrial tissue. Therefore, when a nurse notes that a patient will be taking ibutilide, it indicates that the patient likely has atrial fibrillation, a common arrhythmia characterized by rapid, irregular electrical activity in the atria of the heart.
A client is prescribed Propylthiouracil (PTU) for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which adverse effect should the client be instructed to report?
- A. Sore throat.
- B. Drowsiness.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Heat intolerance.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. A sore throat and fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious adverse effect of PTU that can lead to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications.
Choice B, drowsiness, is not typically associated with PTU and is not a common adverse effect that needs to be reported. Choice C, urinary retention, is not a typical adverse effect of PTU; therefore, it is not the correct answer. Choice D, heat intolerance, is a symptom commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, which PTU is used to treat, so it is not an adverse effect that needs to be specifically reported.