Which antibiotic is not recommended as first line therapy for the associated bug?
- A. legionella - erythromycin
- B. chlamydia psittaci - doxycycline
- C. chlamydia pneumoniae - doxycycline
- D. mycoplasma pneumoniae - roxithromycin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chlamydia pneumoniae doxycycline's gold, not erythromycin, roxi, or others mispaired. Nurses tweak this chronic lung fix.
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What is an independent risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
- A. Age
- B. Waist circumference
- C. Smoking
- D. All three options above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes brews from age cells tire; waist fat resists insulin; smoking inflammation tweaks glucose. All hit independently, stacking odds, a chronic trio nurses flag in every patient check, not just one picking off the list.
Which of the following is NOT part of the histology of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?
- A. Fatty infiltration in liver
- B. Fibrosis of liver
- C. Inflammatory infiltrates in lobules
- D. Cirrhosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: NASH histology includes steatosis (fatty infiltration), lobular inflammation, and fibrosis, per pathology definitions. Mallory bodies (intracellular inclusions) are classic but not universal. Cirrhosis is an advanced NAFLD outcome, not a defining NASH feature progression, not initial histology. This distinction aids physicians in staging chronic liver disease accurately.
A patient who has severe pain associated with terminal pancreatic cancer is being cared for at home by family members. Which finding by the nurse indicates that teaching regarding pain management has been effective?
- A. The patient uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 (0 to 10 scale).
- B. The patient agrees to take the medications by the IV route in order to improve analgesic effectiveness.
- C. The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs.
- D. The patient states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Terminal pancreatic cancer pain's relentless around-the-clock opioids with breakthrough doses keep it tamed, per hospice norms. Waiting for 5/10 lags; IV isn't inherently better oral's fine. Nonopioids at max opioid miss the mark escalation's the play. Nurses in oncology teach this steady dosing plus rescues nails chronic cancer pain, a win if families get it.
The body has several mechanisms to increase the blood glucose level in case of hypoglycaemia. Question: Which of the following options best describes the role of glucagon and adrenaline in hypoglycaemia?
- A. Glucagon and adrenaline stimulate glycogenolysis in the liver
- B. Glucagon and adrenaline inhibit the insulin-stimulated glucose uptake in the muscles
- C. Glucagon stimulates glycogen synthase and adrenaline stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver
- D. Glucagon and adrenaline stimulate glycogen synthase en adrenaline stimulates glycogenolysis in the muscles
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypo hits glucagon and adrenaline rip glycogen apart in liver, sugar surges. No muscle block, no synthase flip straight breakdown's the play nurses watch this, a chronic rescue duo.
About the mineralocorticoid antagonists (MRAs) which of the following is correct?
- A. Patiromer is a new MRA
- B. Losartan is a MRA
- C. MRAs can cause hypokalemia
- D. Finerenone is a novel nonsteroidal MRA
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: MRAs finerenone's new, not patiromer, losartan; hyperkalemia, albumin cuts fit. Nurses tap this chronic kidney tweak.