Nokea
Which assessment action will help the nurse determine if the patient with Bell’s Palsy is receiving adequate nutrition?
- A. Monitor meal trays
- B. Check twice-weekly weights
- C. Measure intake and output
- D. Assess swallowing reflex
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess swallowing reflex. This is crucial for a patient with Bell's Palsy as it can affect their ability to swallow properly, leading to inadequate nutrition intake. By assessing the swallowing reflex, the nurse can determine if the patient is at risk of aspiration or difficulty in eating, which directly impacts their nutrition status. Monitoring meal trays (A) may not provide accurate information on actual food intake. Checking weights (B) only gives limited information on nutrition status. Measuring intake and output (C) is important for fluid balance but may not directly reflect adequate nutrition intake.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should anticipate the administration of:
- A. insulin.
- B. poatassium chloride.
- C. furosemide (Lasix)
- D. vasopressin (Pitressin).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: vasopressin (Pitressin). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps regulate water balance by reducing urine output. Therefore, administering vasopressin would help manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. Insulin (A) is used for diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. Potassium chloride (B) is used to correct potassium imbalances, not specific to diabetes insipidus. Furosemide (Lasix) (C) is a diuretic that increases urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus.
The nurse is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get with mammograms:
- A. Yearly after age 40
- B. After the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter
- C. After the first menstrual period and annually thereafter
- D. Every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually thereafter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct:
1. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms after age 40 for early breast cancer detection.
2. Mammograms are most effective for women aged 40 and older in detecting breast cancer.
3. Regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer at an early stage, improving treatment outcomes.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Mammograms should start at age 40, not after the birth of the first child.
C: Mammograms are not recommended after the first menstrual period; they should start at age 40.
D: Mammograms should be done annually after age 40, not every 3 years between ages 20 and 40.
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
- A. The patient can now perform the dressing changes without help.
- B. The patient can begin retaking all of the previous medications.
- C. The patient is apprehensive about discharge.
- D. The patient’s surgery was not successful.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse can infer that the patient is apprehensive about discharge based on the subjective data of the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone. This indicates the patient may not feel ready to leave the hospital setting. Choice A is incorrect because the patient's fear of going home suggests they may not be comfortable performing dressing changes alone. Choice B is incorrect because there is no information provided to support that the patient can begin retaking all previous medications. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication that the fear of going home is related to the success of the surgery.
A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?
- A. Related to visual field deficits
- B. Related to impaired balance
- C. Related to difficulty swallowing
- D. Related to psychomotor seizures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a cerebellar brain tumor can affect the client's coordination and balance due to its location in the brain responsible for fine motor movements. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and injuries. Visual field deficits (choice A) may contribute to the risk of injury but not as directly as impaired balance. Difficulty swallowing (choice C) and psychomotor seizures (choice D) are not directly related to the client's risk for injury due to a cerebellar brain tumor.
The nurse would monitor the client for which of the following?
- A. Trousseau’s sign
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypokalamia
- D. Respiratory changes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. This involves carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure, indicating hypocalcemia. The nurse should monitor for this sign in clients at risk for low calcium levels. Hypoglycemia and hypokalemia have specific signs and symptoms not related to Trousseau's sign. Respiratory changes are nonspecific and may not be directly related to monitoring for low calcium levels.