Nokea
Which assessment finding in a client post-diskectomy indicates a potential complication?
- A. Mild incisional pain
- B. Numbness in the toes
- C. Clear urine output
- D. Stable vital signs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Numbness in the toes may indicate nerve compression or damage, a potential complication requiring further evaluation.
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The client is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin), an anticonvulsant, for a seizure disorder. Which statement indicates the client understands the discharge teaching concerning this medication?
- A. I will brush my teeth after every meal.'
- B. I will check my Dilantin level daily.'
- C. My urine will turn orange while on Dilantin.'
- D. I won’t have any seizures while on this medication.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene (A) is essential and indicates understanding. Dilantin levels (B) are checked periodically by providers, not daily. Urine color change (C) is not typical, and seizures may still occur (D) if not fully controlled.
The nurse is preparing to administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) to a client diagnosed with a stroke who is complaining of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer the medication in pudding.
- B. Check the client's armband.
- C. Crush the tablet and dissolve in juice.
- D. Have the client sip some water.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the armband (B) ensures patient safety before medication administration. Pudding (A), crushing (C), or sipping water (D) follow identity confirmation.
If the client begins to have a seizure after the EEG, which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen by nasal cannula.
- B. Measure the blood pressure and pulse.
- C. Check the client's pupils.
- D. Place the client in a side-lying position.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Placing the client in a side-lying position prevents aspiration and maintains airway patency during a seizure.
The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which medication would the nurse anticipate being ordered for the client on discharge?
- A. An oral anticoagulant medication.
- B. A beta blocker medication.
- C. An anti-hyperuricemic medication.
- D. A thrombolytic medication.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A TIA in a client with atrial fibrillation is likely due to cardioembolic stroke risk. Oral anticoagulants (A), such as warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants, are prescribed to prevent clot formation. Beta blockers (B) control heart rate, anti-hyperuricemics (C) treat gout, and thrombolytics (D) are used acutely, not for discharge prevention.
The client has right homonymous hemianopia following an ischemic stroke. The nurse asks the NA to help the client with meals knowing that this problem may result in which client response?
- A. Tendency to fall to the contralateral side
- B. Eating food on only half of the plate
- C. Using the silverware inappropriately
- D. Choking when swallowing any liquids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tendency to fall to the contralateral side would be a concern if the client were weak or paralyzed. Homonymous hemianopia (hemianopsia) is a visual field abnormality that results in blindness in half of the visual field in the same side of both eyes. It results from damage to the optic tract or occipital lobe. Using the silverware inappropriately is a concern if the client has agnosia. Choking when swallowing any liquids is a concern if the client has dysphagia.