Nokea
Which assessment findings is INDICATIVE of the diagnosis of hypertension?
- A. Family members with high blood pressure
- B. Elevation of blood cholesterol level
- C. Stressful work environment
- D. Consistent evaluation of blood pressure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The assessment finding that is indicative of the diagnosis of hypertension is consistent evaluation of blood pressure. Hypertension is diagnosed based on repeated measurements of elevated blood pressure. Consistently high blood pressure readings, usually defined as systolic blood pressure consistently at or above 140 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure consistently at or above 90 mmHg, are a key factor in diagnosing hypertension. Family history of high blood pressure (Choice A), elevation of blood cholesterol level (Choice B), and a stressful work environment (Choice C) may be risk factors for hypertension but are not diagnostic criteria. In order to diagnose hypertension, healthcare providers rely on consistent measurement and evaluation of blood pressure over time.
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The nursing team plans to do chart audit project on post-op patients who and developed pressure sores at the Orthopedic unit over the past year to present. What type of audit is?
- A. Retrospective
- B. Concurrent
- C. Process
- D. Outcome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A retrospective audit involves reviewing past cases or data to evaluate processes, outcomes, or compliance with standards. In this scenario, the nursing team plans to audit post-op patients who developed pressure sores over the past year at the Orthopedic unit. By looking at historical data from the past year, the audit is considered retrospective as it assesses what has occurred over a specified period. This type of audit helps identify trends, patterns, and areas for improvement based on past events.
The nurse anticipates that which one is prescribed to prevent a common bacterial complication from the dog bite?
- A. Ibuprofen (Motrin)
- B. tetanus toxoid (Tetavax)
- C. ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
- D. meperidine (Demerol)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic commonly prescribed for the prevention of bacterial infections that can result from animal bites, such as dog bites. Dog bites are often contaminated with bacteria and can lead to infections, particularly from organisms such as Pasteurella multocida. Ciprofloxacin is effective against a broad range of bacteria, including those commonly found in animal bites, making it a suitable choice for infection prophylaxis in this scenario. Ibuprofen is a pain reliever and anti-inflammatory medication, tetanus toxoid is given to prevent tetanus infection, and meperidine is a narcotic analgesic used for pain relief, but none of these options specifically target bacterial prevention in the case of a dog bite.
A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) develops refractory hypoxemia despite maximal ventilatory support and prone positioning. Which of the following adjunctive therapies is most likely to improve oxygenation and reduce mortality in this patient?
- A. High-frequency oscillatory ventilation (HFOV)
- B. Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)
- C. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
- D. Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with ARDS who is experiencing refractory hypoxemia despite maximal ventilatory support and prone positioning, the use of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) is a potentially life-saving adjunctive therapy. ECMO works by providing temporary support for gas exchange outside the body, allowing the lungs to rest and heal while providing adequate oxygenation and carbon dioxide removal. The use of ECMO has been associated with improved oxygenation and reduced mortality in severe cases of ARDS, especially in patients who fail conventional therapies. High-frequency oscillatory ventilation (HFOV) has not consistently shown mortality benefit in ARDS, continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) is not directly indicated for hypoxemia in ARDS, and inhaled nitric oxide (iNO) has shown limited benefit in improving oxygenation in ARDS without a clear impact on mortality.
Which of the following structures is responsible for transporting food from the oral cavity to the esophagus during swallowing?
- A. Tongue
- B. Pharynx
- C. Esophagus
- D. Epiglottis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The pharynx is the structure responsible for transporting food from the oral cavity to the esophagus during swallowing. When food is chewed and mixed with saliva in the oral cavity, it forms a bolus that is propelled to the pharynx by the tongue. The pharynx serves as a common passageway for both air and food, allowing the bolus to pass into the esophagus while preventing it from entering the trachea. The epiglottis, although important in preventing food from entering the airway, is not directly involved in the transportation of food from the oral cavity to the esophagus.
A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech. Symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago but have partially resolved since then. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
- B. Ischemic stroke
- C. Hemorrhagic stroke
- D. Intracerebral hemorrhage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech that partially resolved within 30 minutes is more consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) rather than an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke. TIAs are caused by temporary decreases in blood flow to a specific area of the brain, leading to transient neurological deficits that typically last for less than 24 hours. In this case, the symptoms partially resolving suggest a temporary and reversible ischemic event, characteristic of a TIA. Ischemic strokes involve more prolonged or permanent impairment due to blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, while hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding within the brain tissue or the surrounding membranes.