Nokea
Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in the daily plan of care for a client with a burned extremity?
- A. Distal pulse intensity
- B. Skin integrity
- C. Pain levels
- D. Range of motion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Distal pulse intensity. Monitoring distal pulses is crucial to ensure that circulation to the extremity is not compromised. This assessment helps in detecting any signs of decreased circulation, which is vital in managing a burned extremity. While skin integrity (choice B), pain levels (choice C), and range of motion (choice D) are also important assessments, monitoring distal pulse intensity takes precedence as it directly reflects the perfusion status of the affected extremity in a burned client.
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A client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled to receive a dose of methotrexate. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to review before administering the medication?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Liver function tests
- C. Kidney function tests
- D. Complete blood count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver function tests. Before administering methotrexate, it is crucial to review liver function tests due to the medication's potential hepatotoxic effects. Methotrexate can cause liver damage, so monitoring liver function is essential to prevent any serious complications. While white blood cell count, kidney function tests, and complete blood count are important parameters to monitor in certain situations, they are not the most critical before administering methotrexate.
Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
- B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
- C. Begin external chest compressions.
- D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.
A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Severe abdominal distention
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Decreased bowel sounds
- D. Increased heart rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Severe abdominal distention is a sign of worsening pancreatitis and can indicate complications like bowel obstruction or fluid accumulation. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration. Decreased urine output (Choice B) could indicate renal impairment, decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) are expected in pancreatitis due to paralytic ileus, and an increased heart rate (Choice D) is a common response to pain or stress in acute pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless it is extremely high or persistent.
A newly graduated female staff nurse requests reassignment to another client because a male client is asking her for a date and making suggestive comments. Which response is best for the nurse manager to provide?
- A. I have to call the supervisor to get someone else to transfer to this unit to care for him.
- B. I know you are a good nurse and can handle this client in a professional manner.
- C. I'll talk to the client about his behavior and insist that he stop it immediately.
- D. I'll change your assignment, but let's talk about how a nurse should respond to this kind of client.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best response for the nurse manager to provide in this situation is option D, which involves changing the assignment to address the nurse's immediate concern. It also offers an opportunity to have a conversation with the nurse about how to professionally handle such situations in the future. Option A is not the best response as it does not address the underlying issue and simply shifts the problem to another staff member. Option B, while supportive, does not actively address the client's inappropriate behavior. Option C is not ideal as the nurse manager should handle discussions about inappropriate behavior with clients themselves rather than delegating it to the staff nurse.
A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?
- A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's urine output.
- C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. In DKA, there is a lack of insulin leading to hyperglycemia and ketosis. Insulin administration helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are crucial in treating DKA. Administering intravenous fluids helps with dehydration, monitoring urine output is important to assess renal function, but the priority is addressing the underlying cause of DKA by administering insulin. Administering 50% dextrose IV push is incorrect as it would further elevate blood glucose levels, which is contraindicated in DKA.