Which cells are present in a male age five?
- A. spermatocytes
- B. spermatozoa
- C. spermatogonia
- D. spermatid
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: spermatogonia. At the age of five, boys have not reached puberty yet, so they do not produce sperm cells. Spermatogonia are the precursor cells that give rise to sperm cells later in puberty. Spermatocytes are the cells that undergo meiosis to form sperm cells, spermatozoa are mature sperm cells, and spermatids are the immediate precursors to sperm cells. Therefore, the only cells present in a male age five would be spermatogonia, as they are the early-stage cells in the process of spermatogenesis.
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Which of the following is the primary sign of breast cancer?
- A. A bloody discharge from the nipple
- B. A dimpling of the skin over the lesion
- C. A retraction of the nipple
- D. A painless mass in the breast
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A painless mass is often the first noticeable sign of breast cancer.
A 50-year-old patient asks the nurse about her risk of developing a cancer of the reproductive system. What is the appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Human papilloma virus infection and cigarette smoking are major risk factors for cervical cancer.
- B. Some of the risk factors for endometrial cancer include being age 40 or older and having a history of infertility.
- C. Ovarian cancer is not often seen in women under age 50 or those who have a family history of breast cancer.
- D. Women who have had menstrual irregularities for many years are at lower risk of developing any of the reproductive system cancers.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection and cigarette smoking are major risk factors for cervical cancer.
Step 2: The patient is 50 years old, which puts her at risk for cervical cancer.
Step 3: HPV infection and smoking increase the risk of cervical cancer.
Step 4: Therefore, the appropriate response by the nurse is A.
Summary:
B: Endometrial cancer risk factors include obesity, not age 40, and infertility is not a primary risk factor.
C: Ovarian cancer can occur in women under 50 and family history of breast cancer is not a definitive protective factor.
D: Menstrual irregularities do not necessarily lower the risk of reproductive system cancers.
Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is caused by Treponema pallidum?
- A. Herpes
- B. Venereal warts
- C. Gonorrhea
- D. Syphilis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Syphilis is caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum.
Benign tumors originating in the myometrium are
- A. Fibroids
- B. Rhabdomyoma
- C. Leiomyoma
- D. Both a & c
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Both a & c) because benign tumors originating in the myometrium are typically either fibroids (choice A) or leiomyomas (choice C), which are essentially the same thing. Fibroids and leiomyomas are both non-cancerous growths arising from smooth muscle cells in the myometrium. Rhabdomyoma (choice B) is a benign tumor arising from striated muscle cells, not smooth muscle cells like fibroids and leiomyomas. So, choices A, B, and C are incorrect because only fibroids and leiomyomas specifically originate in the myometrium.
Which of the following events do not take place after fertilization.
- A. a sperm is drawn into the egg and egg completes it first meiotic division
- B. the second polar body forms
- C. egg releases secretory vesicles to block polyspermy
- D. egg enzymes are activated and embryogenesis begins
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After fertilization, the sperm and egg nuclei fuse to form a zygote. The egg completes its first meiotic division before fertilization, so A is incorrect. B is incorrect because the second polar body forms after fertilization. C is incorrect as the egg releases secretory vesicles to block polyspermy post-fertilization. D is incorrect as egg enzymes are activated post-fertilization to initiate embryogenesis. Thus, the answer is A, as the completion of the first meiotic division occurs before fertilization.