Nokea
Which classification of urinary tract infection (UTI) is described as infection of the renal parenchyma, renal pelvis, and ureters?
- A. Upper UTI
- B. Lower UTI
- C. Complicated UTI
- D. Uncomplicated UTI
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Upper UTI. This classification describes infection of the renal parenchyma, renal pelvis, and ureters, which are part of the upper urinary tract. In upper UTIs, the infection involves the kidneys (renal parenchyma), renal pelvis, and ureters, whereas lower UTIs typically involve the bladder (cystitis) and urethra. Complicated UTIs involve structural or functional abnormalities of the urinary tract, making treatment more challenging. Uncomplicated UTIs refer to infections in otherwise healthy individuals with normal urinary tracts. Therefore, the description provided aligns with the characteristics of an upper UTI, making it the correct choice.
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Each kidney contains about a million and stored in the pituitary gland
- A. ADH plays a key role in the homeostatic filtration apparatus called: process called osmoregulation
- B. the distal tubule
- C. the proximal tubule
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: ADH plays a key role in the homeostatic filtration apparatus called the process called osmoregulation. ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, regulates water balance by controlling the permeability of the collecting duct in the kidney nephrons. This controls the concentration of urine produced. The other choices, B and C, refer to specific parts of the kidney tubules and are not related to the role of ADH in osmoregulation. Choice D is incomplete and does not provide any relevant information. Therefore, A is the correct choice as it directly relates to the function of ADH in maintaining water balance within the body.
Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir?: *
- A. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus
- B. Herpes simplex Type 2 virus
- C. Varicell
- D. zoster virus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA replication by targeting viral DNA polymerase. Herpes simplex Type 1 virus is most susceptible to acyclovir because it is a DNA virus that requires viral DNA polymerase for replication. The drug is selectively activated by viral thymidine kinase in infected cells, leading to its antiviral activity. Herpes simplex Type 2, Varicella zoster, and other viruses do not possess the same susceptibility to acyclovir due to differences in their replication mechanisms.
Your patient does not seem to be responding to conservative treatment for acute renal failure, and dialysis is being considered. You understand that the main indication for dialysis is
- A. generalized edema
- B. elevated blood pressure
- C. elevated blood calcium
- D. a high and rising level of potassium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a high and rising level of potassium. Dialysis is indicated in acute renal failure when the patient has severe electrolyte imbalances, especially hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Potassium levels must be closely monitored, and if they are high and continue to rise despite conservative treatment, dialysis is necessary to quickly lower the potassium levels. Generalized edema (A) is a symptom of renal failure but is not the main indication for dialysis. Elevated blood pressure (B) and elevated blood calcium (C) are not direct indications for dialysis in the context of acute renal failure.
The following drug is used for oral treatment of trichomonas vaginitis: *
- A. Diiodohydroxyquin
- B. Tinidazole
- C. Clotrimazole
- D. Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tinidazole. This drug is used for oral treatment of trichomonas vaginitis due to its high efficacy against the parasite. Tinidazole is a nitroimidazole antibiotic that targets anaerobic organisms like Trichomonas vaginalis. Diiodohydroxyquin (A) is used for amoebiasis, not trichomonas. Clotrimazole (C) and Ketoconazole (D) are antifungal medications and not effective against trichomonas parasites.
Red man syndrome has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of which of the following antibiotic?
- A. Vancomycin
- B. Clindamycin
- C. Cefoperazone
- D. Piperacillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with rapid intravenous infusion of vancomycin. This is due to the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils. Vancomycin is known to cause this syndrome, while the other antibiotics listed do not have a similar association. Clindamycin is more commonly associated with pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone with liver toxicity, and Piperacillin with hypersensitivity reactions like rash or anaphylaxis. Therefore, based on the mechanism of action and clinical evidence, vancomycin is the correct choice for causing red man syndrome.