Nokea
Which client problems are appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care for the client diagnosed with COPD? Select all that apply.
- A. Impaired gas exchange.
- B. Inability to tolerate temperature extremes.
- C. Activity intolerance.
- D. Inability to cope with changes in roles.
- E. Alteration in nutrition.
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: COPD causes impaired gas exchange (A), activity intolerance (C), role changes (D), and nutritional issues (E) from energy demands. Temperature intolerance (B) is not primary.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which option below is considered a positive Homan's Sign for the assessment of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. The patient reports pain when the foot is manually dorsiflexed.
- B. The patient reports pain when the foot is manually plantarflexed.
- C. The patient experiences pain when the leg is extended.
- D. the patient experiences pain when the leg is flexed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Homan's Sign is NOT reliable because of false positives, but know for exams how to elicit a response. It done by manually (forced) dorsiflexing the patient's foot (bending it up towards the shin) and if it causes the patient pain it considered a positive Homan's Sign. However, the MD must further investigate if the patient has a DVT.
The post-anesthesia care nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with lung cancer who had a thoracotomy and is experiencing frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Request STAT arterial blood gases.
- B. Administer lidocaine intravenous push.
- C. Assess for possible causes.
- D. Request a STAT electrocardiogram.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Frequent PVCs post-thoracotomy may stem from hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, or pain. Assessing for causes (C) is the first step to identify and address the underlying issue. ABGs (A) or ECG (D) may follow based on findings. Lidocaine (B) is premature without identifying the cause.
An adult with tuberculosis has started taking rifampin (Rimactane). Which side effect is the client most likely to experience when taking this drug?
- A. Reddish-orange color of urine, sputum, and saliva
- B. Erythema and urticaria
- C. Tinnitus and deafness
- D. Peripheral neuritis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids.
The client is getting out of bed and becomes very anxious and has a feeling of impending doom. The nurse thinks the client may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen 10 L via nasal cannula.
- B. Place the client in high Fowler's position.
- C. Obtain a STAT pulse oximeter reading.
- D. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High Fowler’s position (B) improves breathing in suspected PE, a priority. Oxygen (A), SpO2 (C), and lung sounds (D) follow to support and assess.
The client diagnosed with ARDS is on a ventilator and the high alarm indicates an increase in the peak airway pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Check the tubing for any kinks.
- B. Suction the airway for secretions.
- C. Assess the lip line of the ET tube.
- D. Sedate the client with a muscle relaxant.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High airway pressure may result from kinks (A), a common cause requiring immediate check. Suctioning (B), lip line (C), and sedation (D) follow if needed.