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Which client would the nurse identify as having the highest risk for developing postoperative complications?
- A. The 67-year-old client who is obese, has diabetes, and takes insulin.
- B. The 50-year-old client with arthritis taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
- C. The 45-year-old client having abdominal surgery to remove the gallbladder.
- D. The 60-year-old client with anemia who smokes one (1) pack of cigarettes a day.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Obesity, diabetes, and insulin use increase risks for infection, poor wound healing, and glycemic instability, the highest risk profile. Arthritis, cholecystectomy, and anemia/smoking are less severe.
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Which problem would be most appropriate for the nurse to identify for the client experiencing acute pain?
- A. Ineffective coping.
- B. Potential for injury.
- C. Alteration in comfort.
- D. Altered sensory input.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alteration in comfort directly addresses acute pain’s impact, per NANDA-I. Coping, injury, and sensory input are secondary or unrelated.
Which violation of surgical asepsis would require immediate intervention by the circulating nurse?
- A. Surgical supplies were cleaned and sterilized prior to the case.
- B. The circulating nurse is wearing a long-sleeved sterile gown.
- C. Masks covering the mouth and nose are being worn by the surgical team.
- D. The scrub nurse setting up the sterile field is wearing artificial nails.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Artificial nails harbor bacteria, violating asepsis and risking infection, requiring immediate intervention. Sterilized supplies, masks, and long-sleeved gowns (if non-sterile role) are appropriate.
The PACU nurse administers Narcan, an opioid antagonist, to a postoperative client. Which client problem should the nurse include to the plan of care based on this medication?
- A. Alteration in comfort.
- B. Risk for depressed respiratory pattern.
- C. Potential for infection.
- D. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Narcan reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, but risk persists, requiring monitoring. Comfort, infection, and fluid imbalance are unrelated to Narcan.
Which problem is appropriate for the nurse to identify for a client in the intraoperative phase of surgery?
- A. Alteration in comfort.
- B. Disuse syndrome.
- C. Risk for injury.
- D. Altered gas exchange.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Risk for injury (e.g., from positioning, equipment) is a primary intraoperative concern, per NANDA-I. Comfort, disuse, and gas exchange are more postoperative or anesthesia-related.
The nurse is planning the care of the surgical client having procedural sedation. Which intervention has highest priority?
- A. Assess the client's respiratory status.
- B. Monitor the client's urinary output.
- C. Take a 12-lead ECG prior to injection.
- D. Attempt to keep the client focused.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Procedural sedation risks respiratory depression; assessing respiratory status is critical for safety. Urinary output, ECG, and focus are secondary.