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Palliation care includes what goals? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Pain relief
- B. Nausea relief
- C. Psychological support
- D. Withdrawal of life-support interventions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Pain relief) because palliative care aims to provide comfort and improve the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses. Pain relief is a crucial goal in palliative care to alleviate physical suffering. Nausea relief (B) is also commonly addressed in palliative care, but it is not a universal goal. Psychological support (C) is an important aspect of palliative care but is not always a primary goal. Withdrawal of life-support interventions (D) is not a goal of palliative care, as palliative care focuses on symptom management and improving quality of life, not hastening death.
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Which of the following statements describes the core conc ept of the synergy model of practice?
- A. All nurses must be certified in order to have the synerg y model implemented.
- B. Family members must be included in daily interdisciplaibnirabr.cyo mro/teusnt ds.
- C. Nurses and physicians must work collaboratively and synergistically to influence care.
- D. Unique needs of patients and their families influence nursing competencies.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
D is correct because the synergy model focuses on individualized care based on patients' unique needs. This model emphasizes tailoring nursing competencies to address these needs, promoting holistic care. A is incorrect as certification is not a requirement. B involves family inclusion but does not capture the core concept. C mentions collaboration but does not specifically address individualized care.
In which situation would a healthcare surrogate or proxy a ssume the end-of-life decision-making role for a patient?
- A. When a dying patient requires extensive heavy sedatioanb,i rbs.ucocmh/ taesst benzodiazepines and narcotics, to control distressing symptoms
- B. When a dying patient who is competent requests to wi thdraw treatment against the wishes of the family
- C. When a dying patient who is competent requests to con tinue treatment against the recommendations of the healthcare team
- D. When a dying patient who is competent is receiving pr n treatment for pain and anxiety
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in this situation, the patient is no longer able to make decisions for themselves due to being heavily sedated. The healthcare surrogate or proxy steps in to make decisions on behalf of the patient to ensure their comfort and well-being.
Choice B is incorrect because the patient is competent and able to make their own decisions, so there is no need for a surrogate to take over decision-making.
Choice C is incorrect because the patient is competent and has the right to make decisions about their own treatment, even if they go against medical recommendations.
Choice D is incorrect because the patient is competent and receiving appropriate treatment for their pain and anxiety, so there is no need for a surrogate to intervene in this scenario.
The nurse is assessing the patient’s pain using the Critical Care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT). Which of the following assessments would indicate the greatest likelihood of pain and need for nursing intervention?
- A. Absence of vocal sounds
- B. Fighting the ventilator
- C. Moving legs in bed
- D. Relaxed muscles in upper extremities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fighting the ventilator. This behavior indicates the patient is experiencing discomfort and struggling against the ventilator, suggesting a high likelihood of pain. The CPOT assesses pain through behaviors like grimacing, vocalization, and muscle tension, which are all present when a patient is fighting the ventilator. Absence of vocal sounds (Choice A) does not necessarily indicate pain as some patients may be silent even when in pain. Moving legs in bed (Choice C) could be due to restlessness rather than pain. Relaxed muscles in upper extremities (Choice D) do not reflect pain as the CPOT focuses on behaviors indicating discomfort.
The emergency department (ED) nurse is initiating therapeutic hypothermia in a patient who has been resuscitated after a cardiac arrest. Which actions in the hypothermia protocol can be delegated to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)?
- A. Continuously monitor heart rhythm.
- B. Check neurologic status every 2 hours.
- C. Place cooling blankets above and below the patient.
- D. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg per nasogastric tube.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg per nasogastric tube.
Rationale: LPNs/LVNs are trained to administer medications, including oral and nasogastric routes. Giving acetaminophen via nasogastric tube is within their scope of practice. LPNs/LVNs should have the knowledge and skills to safely administer this medication as part of the hypothermia protocol.
Summary of other choices:
A: Continuously monitor heart rhythm - This requires specialized training and skills typically within the scope of registered nurses or cardiac monitoring technicians.
B: Check neurologic status every 2 hours - Assessing neurologic status requires critical thinking and clinical judgment, which are typically responsibilities of registered nurses.
C: Place cooling blankets above and below the patient - Positioning and managing cooling devices may require specific training and should be done under the supervision of a registered nurse.
A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intearbvirbe.ncotmio/tnes tt o control agitation?
- A. Administer fentanyl (Duragesic) 25 mg IV bolus.
- B. Administer midazolam 2 mg IV now.
- C. Increase the rate of the morphine infusion by 50%.
- D. Request an order for a paralytic agent.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct:
1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis.
2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation.
3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility.
4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness.
5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation.
C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression.
D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.