Nokea
Which factor is an advantage of a vaginal hysterectomy over the abdominal hysterectomy?
- A. Less postoperative discomfort
- B. Reduced hospital stay
- C. Less expensive
- D. Better visualization of the intrapelvic area
- E. Faster recovery
Correct Answer: A,B,C,E
Rationale: The vaginal approach allows for less postoperative discomfort, a reduced hospital stay, is less expensive, and offers a faster recovery.
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Vaginal fistulas are caused by an ulcerating process resulting from which cause?
- A. cancer.
- B. radiation.
- C. poor hygiene.
- D. multiple sexual partners.
- E. weakening of tissue from pregnancies.
- F. surgical interventions.
Correct Answer: A,B,E,F
Rationale: Vaginal fistulas are caused by an ulcerating process resulting from cancer, radiation, weakening of tissue by pregnancies, and surgical interventions.
The patient reports that she is free of gonorrhea and can now engage in sexual activity. Which response is most appropriate?
- A. If you have been free of symptoms for 2 weeks you are cured.'
- B. You should get a rapid plasma reagin (RPR) just to make sure.'
- C. No case is considered cured until you have had three consecutive negative cervical smears.'
- D. To confirm your cure, you should get a Venereal Disease Research Lab (VDRL).'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: No case of gonorrhea is considered cured until you have had three consecutive negative cervical smears. The RPR and the VDRL are tests for syphilis.
Why do false-negative results in mammography occur in specific age-groups?
- A. Older women have greater density of breast tissue.
- B. Older women have less density of breast tissue.
- C. Younger women have greater density of breast tissue.
- D. Younger women have less density of breast tissue.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Because of the greater density of breast tissue, mammography is less sensitive in younger women, which may result in more false-negative results.
Which situation does the diagnosis of secondary infertility refer to?
- A. Has never conceived.
- B. Is infertile because of repeated infection.
- C. Has conceived but is now unable to do so.
- D. Is over the age of 38.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Secondary infertility refers to a woman who has conceived in the past and now is unable to do so.
Which patient is most at risk for the infection of epididymitis?
- A. 17-year-old athlete who trains for several hours a day
- B. 22-year-old who has been exposed to mumps
- C. 45-year-old who was circumcised at the age of 10
- D. 50-year-old who has smoked for 30 years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Symptoms can occur after trauma to the genital area, after instrumentation of the urethra and cystoscopy, and after physical exertion or prolonged sexual activity.