Nokea
Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
- A. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- B. Complaint of frequent mild nausea
- C. Fundal height measurement of 18 cm
- D. History of bright red spotting for 1 day weeks ago
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fundal height measurement of 18 cm. At 10 weeks of gestation, the fundal height should typically measure around 10-12 cm. A fundal height measurement of 18 cm would suggest excessive growth, which is a characteristic finding in a hydatidiform mole due to abnormal proliferation of placental tissue.
Incorrect choices:
A: Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal range and not specific to hydatidiform mole.
B: Complaint of frequent mild nausea is a common symptom in early pregnancy and not specific to a mole.
D: History of bright red spotting for 1 day weeks ago is more indicative of a potential previous miscarriage, not necessarily a mole.
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A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
- A. gastrointestinal upset.
- B. effects of magnesium sulfate.
- C. anxiety caused by hospitalization.
- D. worsening disease and impending convulsion.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the symptoms described (headache, visual changes, epigastric pain) are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating impending eclampsia with seizures. This requires urgent intervention to prevent serious complications. Option A is incorrect as gastrointestinal upset does not typically present with these specific signs. Option B is incorrect as magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia, not cause the symptoms described. Option C is incorrect as anxiety would not cause the specific symptoms mentioned. In summary, the signs described point towards worsening disease and the likelihood of impending convulsions, necessitating immediate medical attention.
What is a common sign or symptom of preeclampsia during pregnancy?
- A. abdominal cramps
- B. severe headache
- C. increased appetite
- D. elevated heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: severe headache. A common sign of preeclampsia is a severe headache due to high blood pressure, a hallmark symptom of the condition. Preeclampsia can lead to dangerous complications for both the mother and the baby. Abdominal cramps (A) are not typically associated with preeclampsia. Increased appetite (C) is not a typical symptom and may even decrease due to other factors. Elevated heart rate (D) is not a specific sign of preeclampsia; high blood pressure is the key indicator.
The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse"™s next action?
- A. Ask the patient when she last had anything to eat or drink.
- B. Take a culture of the lesions to verify the involved organism.
- C. Ask the patient if she has had unprotected sex since her outbreak.
- D. Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ask the patient when she last had anything to eat or drink. This is the correct action because the patient is in active labor with genital herpes lesions. Knowing the last time the patient had anything to eat or drink is essential in case an emergency cesarean section is needed, as the patient may need to be NPO.
Option B: Taking a culture of the lesions is not the immediate priority as the patient is in active labor and the presence of lesions is already confirmed.
Option C: Asking about unprotected sex is important for history taking but not the immediate next action in this scenario.
Option D: Using electronic fetal surveillance is also important, but the priority in this case is assessing the patient's fasting status for potential emergency procedures.
Which factor is known to increase the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus?
- A. Previous birth of large infant
- B. Maternal age younger than 25 years
- C. Underweight prior to pregnancy
- D. Previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Previous birth of large infant. This factor increases the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus due to the association with maternal insulin resistance. Large infants may have been exposed to higher glucose levels in utero, leading to increased risk in subsequent pregnancies. Maternal age younger than 25 years (B) is not a known risk factor. Being underweight prior to pregnancy (C) is actually associated with a lower risk of gestational diabetes. Previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus (D) is a separate condition and not a risk factor for gestational diabetes.
A patient at 32 weeks' gestation is diagnosed with polyhydramnios. The patient asks the nurse if polyhydramnios can affect the baby. What is the nurse's response to the patient's question?
- A. No, polyhydramnios commonly occurs toward the end of pregnancy.
- B. No, polyhydramnios is a sign that the lungs are maturing.
- C. Yes, polyhydramnios increases the risk of a preterm delivery.
- D. Yes, polyhydramnios causes umbilical cord compression.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Yes, polyhydramnios increases the risk of a preterm delivery. Polyhydramnios, an excess of amniotic fluid, can lead to uterine overdistension, which may trigger premature labor. The increased pressure from the excess fluid can also cause premature rupture of membranes. This complication can potentially result in a preterm delivery, which carries risks for the baby's health and development. Choices A and B are incorrect because polyhydramnios is not a normal occurrence at the end of pregnancy nor a sign of lung maturity. Choice D is incorrect as umbilical cord compression is a potential complication of polyhydramnios but not the primary risk associated with it.