Which hormone is responsible for converting the endometrium into decidual cells for implantation?
- A. Estrogen
- B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
- C. Human placental lactogen
- D. Progesterone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: At high levels, progesterone maintains the endometrial lining for implantation of the zygote.
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A pregnant patient is at 28 weeks gestation and reports leg cramps. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Instruct the patient to stretch the legs and elevate them to alleviate the cramps.
- B. Recommend that the patient increase calcium intake through dietary changes.
- C. Administer prescribed pain medication to relieve discomfort.
- D. Encourage the patient to walk for 30 minutes each day to prevent cramps.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Leg cramps during pregnancy are common due to increased weight and pressure on leg muscles. Stretching and elevating legs can help alleviate cramps by improving circulation and reducing muscle tension. Increasing calcium intake (B) may help prevent cramps but is not the immediate action needed. Administering pain medication (C) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary. Walking (D) is beneficial for overall health during pregnancy but may not directly address the immediate leg cramps.
When preparing to teach a class about prenatal development, the nurse would include information about folic acid supplementation. What is folic acid known to prevent?
- A. Congenital heart defects
- B. Neural tube defects
- C. Mental retardation
- D. Premature birth
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: It is now known that folic acid supplements can prevent neural tube defects such as spina bifida.
A pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation is experiencing mild back pain. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer pain relief and recommend bed rest.
- B. Assess the patient's posture and recommend appropriate exercises.
- C. Encourage the patient to perform light physical activities to strengthen the back muscles.
- D. Instruct the patient to take deep breaths and rest until the pain subsides.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing the patient's posture and recommending appropriate exercises will help address the mild back pain effectively without compromising the safety of the pregnancy. By identifying any postural issues contributing to the pain and recommending suitable exercises, the nurse can promote musculoskeletal health and alleviate discomfort. Administering pain relief without addressing the underlying cause (choice A) may mask symptoms temporarily. Encouraging light physical activities (choice C) could worsen the pain if not tailored to the individual's needs. Instructing the patient to rest and take deep breaths (choice D) may not address the root cause of the back pain.
The nurse is caring for a 32-year-old pregnant patient who is 20 weeks gestation and has a BMI of 40. Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor for more closely?
- A. Gestational diabetes and preeclampsia
- B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- C. Iron-deficiency anemia
- D. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes and preeclampsia. A BMI of 40 indicates obesity, which increases the risk of developing gestational diabetes and preeclampsia. Obesity is a significant risk factor for these conditions due to the increased strain on the body during pregnancy. Gestational diabetes can lead to complications for both the mother and the baby, while preeclampsia can be life-threatening if not managed properly. Monitoring for these conditions closely is crucial in this high-risk patient.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Hyperemesis gravidarum - This condition is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy and is not directly related to the patient's BMI.
C: Iron-deficiency anemia - While obesity can impact iron levels, it is not the primary concern in this scenario.
D: Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) - While obesity can increase the risk of certain pregnancy complications, IUGR is not directly linked to the patient's
A patient who is about to undergo a cesarean section for breech presentation without fetal distress asks her nurse what kind of anesthesia would be best for her. The nurse explains that which of the following is the preferred method of anesthesia in this nonemergent case?
- A. Spinal block
- B. Epidural block
- C. General anesthesia
- D. Intravenous sedation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinal block. In a non-emergent cesarean section for breech presentation without fetal distress, a spinal block is preferred due to its rapid onset, reliable anesthesia for surgical procedures, and minimal risk to the fetus. Spinal block provides adequate pain relief and muscle relaxation without affecting the mother's ability to breathe and interact with the newborn immediately after delivery.
Summary of other choices:
B: Epidural block - Epidural block may not provide a dense enough block for a cesarean section and might require more time to administer.
C: General anesthesia - General anesthesia poses more risks to both the mother and the fetus compared to regional anesthesia methods.
D: Intravenous sedation - Intravenous sedation may not provide sufficient anesthesia for a cesarean section and is not the preferred method for this type of surgery.