Nokea
Which intervention should the nurse suggest to help a client with multiple sclerosis avoid episodes of urinary incontinence?
- A. Limit fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day.
- B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Establish a regular voiding schedule.
- D. Administer prophylactic antibiotics, as ordered.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A regular voiding schedule helps manage incontinence by promoting bladder emptying before urgency. Fluid restriction risks dehydration, indwelling catheters increase infection risk, and antibiotics are not preventive for incontinence.
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The nurse in the emergency department (ED) is caring for a 62-year-old male client.
Item 5 of 6
Triage Note
1700:
• The client was brought to the ED after collapsing on a tennis court.
• Vital signs: BP 94/57, T 105° F (40.5° C), P 115, RR 26, Pulse oximetry 95% on room air. • The client is lethargic and confused. Skin is pale, and there is some perspiration on the forehead. Thready peripheral pulses, clear lung fields bilaterally, tachypnea, shallow respirations.
Click to highlight the orders that the nurse should consider a priority.
- A. Perform admission medication reconciliation and admit the client to the intensive care unit
- B. Remove the client's clothing
- C. Start a large-bore peripheral vascular access device
- D. 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) 1000 mL, IV, once
- E. Obtain medical records from the client's outpatient primary healthcare provider
- F. Insert temperature-sensing indwelling urinary catheter
- G. Apply a cooling blanket to the client
Correct Answer: B,C,D,F,G
Rationale: Priority orders address immediate life-threatening issues: removing clothing (B), IV access (C), saline (D), temperature catheter (F), and cooling blanket (G) manage heat stroke and hypotension. Medication reconciliation (A) and medical records (E) are secondary.
A client arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke and receives tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) administration. The nurse should first:
- A. Ask what medications the client is taking.
- B. Complete a history and health assessment.
- C. Identify the time of onset of the stroke.
- D. Determine if the client is scheduled for any surgical procedures.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The time of stroke onset is critical for t-PA administration, as it must be given within a specific window (typically 3-4.5 hours) to be effective and safe. Other assessments follow this priority.
Which position is best for a client with a hemorrhagic stroke?
- A. Flat supine.
- B. Head elevated 30 degrees.
- C. Prone position.
- D. Trendelenburg position.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Head elevation at 30 degrees reduces intracranial pressure while maintaining cerebral perfusion in hemorrhagic stroke.
A client with a diagnosis of cancer is frequently disruptive and challenges the nurse. This behavior is probably caused by:
- A. Uncertainty and an underlying fear of recurrence.
- B. The usual trajectory of a short-term illness.
- C. A history of a behavioral illness.
- D. The one-time crisis from learning of the diagnosis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Disruptive behavior in a cancer client is often driven by uncertainty and fear of recurrence, reflecting ongoing emotional distress.
Crackles heard on lung auscultation indicate which of the following?
- A. Cyanosis.
- B. Bronchospasm.
- C. Airway narrowing.
- D. Fluid-filled alveoli.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Crackles indicate fluid in the alveoli, often due to pulmonary edema in heart failure or post-MI, reflecting left ventricular dysfunction.