Nokea
Which is the MOST important risk factor to osteoporosis
- A. Menopause
- B. With history of previous fracture
- C. Being male
- D. Short in height
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Menopause is the most important risk factor for osteoporosis because it leads to a decrease in estrogen levels, which plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density. After menopause, women are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis due to loss of estrogen's protective effects on bone mass. Other risk factors like history of previous fracture, being male, and short stature can also contribute to osteoporosis, but menopause has the strongest association with the development of the condition. It is essential for postmenopausal women to be aware of this risk factor and take preventive measures such as regular exercise, adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, and appropriate medical evaluation and treatment as needed.
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She was asked by the nurse supervisor about her concern and what are the considered ideal fetal positions for a healthy delivery?
- A. Right occipitoposterior with no flexion
- B. Right occipitoposterior with full flexion
- C. Left transverse anterior in moderate flexion
- D. Left Sacroanterior with full flexion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The considered ideal fetal position for a healthy delivery is left transverse anterior with moderate flexion. This position allows for an easier descent through the birth canal and reduces the chances of complications during delivery. This position is optimal for a smoother and safer delivery process for both the mother and the baby.
A nurse is preparing to perform a wound irrigation procedure for a patient with a contaminated wound. What solution should the nurse use for wound irrigation?
- A. Sterile water
- B. Normal saline
- C. Hydrogen peroxide
- D. Betadine solution
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal saline is the preferred solution for wound irrigation because it is isotonic and will not damage healthy tissue or delay wound healing. It helps to remove debris and pathogens from the wound, promoting a clean environment for healing. Sterile water can be used if normal saline is not available, but it may cause cellular damage if used in large volumes. Hydrogen peroxide and Betadine solution are not recommended for wound irrigation as they can be cytotoxic to the tissues and interfere with the wound healing process. It's important for the nurse to use evidence-based practice and follow recommended guidelines to promote optimal wound healing outcomes.
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of epistaxis, gum bleeding, and easy bruising. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, and normal PT and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
- A. Von Willebrand disease
- B. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
- C. Hemophilia A
- D. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of recurrent episodes of epistaxis, gum bleeding, and easy bruising, along with laboratory findings of prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, and normal coagulation studies (PT and aPTT) are highly suggestive of Von Willebrand disease. Von Willebrand disease is the most common inherited bleeding disorder and is characterized by a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), which plays a key role in platelet adhesion and aggregation. The prolonged bleeding time is due to impaired platelet adhesion to the damaged vessel wall in the absence of functional vWF. Normal platelet count and normal PT/aPTT help differentiate Von Willebrand disease from other bleeding disorders such as hemophilia and platelet function disorders like Glanzmann thrombasthenia and Bernard-Soulier syndrome.
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of severe headache associated with ipsilateral lacrimation, rhinorrhea, and ptosis. Symptoms are often triggered by alcohol consumption. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Migraine headache
- B. Cluster headache
- C. Tension-type headache
- D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient is presenting with symptoms consistent with cluster headache. Cluster headaches are characterized by recurrent episodes of severe unilateral (ipsilateral) headache accompanied by lacrimation (tearing from the eyes), rhinorrhea (runny nose), and ptosis (drooping of the eyelid). These headaches often occur in clusters over a period of weeks to months, hence the name "cluster headache."
A patient presents with a painless, gradually enlarging mass in the left neck, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals thyroid follicular cells. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Thyroglossal duct cyst
- B. Lymphadenopathy
- C. Thyroid adenoma
- D. Thyroid carcinoma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation described is most consistent with a thyroid adenoma. Thyroid adenomas are benign neoplasms of the thyroid gland and can present as painless, gradually enlarging masses in the neck. Fine-needle aspiration cytology revealing thyroid follicular cells further supports the diagnosis of a thyroid adenoma. Thyroglossal duct cysts typically present as midline neck masses that move with swallowing, while lymphadenopathy presents as enlarged lymph nodes and may be associated with infection or malignancy. Thyroid carcinoma may also present as a neck mass but is more likely to be associated with other features such as vocal cord paralysis, hoarseness, or enlarged cervical lymph nodes.