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Which nursing response provides accurate information to discuss with the female patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder and her support system?
- A. Remember that alcohol and caffeine can trigger a relapse of your symptoms.
- B. Antidepressant therapy should be carefully monitored due to the risk of a manic episode in bipolar disorder.
- C. It's crucial to inform your healthcare provider promptly if you experience sleep disturbances.
- D. Are your family members prepared to play an active role in helping manage this disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as it emphasizes the importance of avoiding triggers like alcohol and caffeine that can lead to symptom relapse in patients with bipolar disorder. Educating the patient and their support system about these triggers is essential for managing the condition effectively and preventing exacerbations of symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as it overly focuses on antidepressant therapy, which is not the primary concern related to triggers for symptom relapse. Choice C, while important, does not directly address triggers for symptom relapse in bipolar disorder. Choice D is also relevant but does not provide immediate information on managing triggers for symptom relapse.
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Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
- A. Sertraline
- B. Diazepam
- C. Methylphenidate
- D. Clozapine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Methylphenidate is the correct answer. It is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD. Methylphenidate works by increasing the activity of certain chemicals in the brain that are involved in attention and impulse control. Sertraline is an antidepressant used for depression, anxiety, and other conditions, not ADHD. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine mainly prescribed for anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures, not ADHD. Clozapine is an antipsychotic medication used for schizophrenia when other medications are ineffective, not for ADHD.
Which statement by a patient indicates an understanding of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)?
- A. CBT will help me understand and change my thought patterns.
- B. CBT focuses on resolving past trauma.
- C. CBT will help me avoid my problems.
- D. CBT involves taking medication to manage symptoms.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a type of psychotherapy that focuses on helping patients understand and change their thought patterns to improve their mental health. This therapy aims to identify and modify negative or harmful thoughts and behaviors. Option A correctly reflects this fundamental concept of CBT, emphasizing the role of thought patterns in mental health improvement. Choices B and C are incorrect because CBT does not primarily focus on resolving past trauma or avoiding problems; instead, it concentrates on changing cognitive patterns. Choice D is also inaccurate as CBT does not involve medication management but rather focuses on cognitive and behavioral interventions.
A patient is being assessed for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which symptom is the patient most likely to report?
- A. Excessive worrying about various aspects of life.
- B. Extreme mood swings between euphoria and depression.
- C. Persistent thoughts of self-harm.
- D. Hearing voices that others do not hear.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) commonly present with excessive worrying about various aspects of life. This persistent and uncontrollable worry is a hallmark symptom of GAD and can significantly impact daily functioning and quality of life. Extreme mood swings (choice B), persistent thoughts of self-harm (choice C), and auditory hallucinations (choice D) are more indicative of other mental health conditions like bipolar disorder, depression, and schizophrenia, respectively. These symptoms are not specific to GAD.
During a mental health assessment, a patient states, 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore.' This statement is an indication of which of the following?
- A. Anxiety disorder
- B. Bipolar disorder
- C. Depression
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's statement 'I just don't see the point in anything anymore' reflects feelings of hopelessness and a lack of purpose, which are common symptoms of depression. Depression is characterized by persistent feelings of sadness, emptiness, and loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable. While anxiety disorders can involve excessive worry and fear, bipolar disorder includes episodes of both depression and mania, and schizophrenia typically involves symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, depression is the most appropriate choice based on the patient's statement.
A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'
- A. A higher dosage
- B. Once-a-week dosing
- C. A lower dosage
- D. A different drug
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.