Which of the ff. actions would the nurse include in the plan of care to reduce the symptoms of the patient who has vertigo?
- A. Avoid noises
- B. Encourage fluid intake
- C. Avoid sudden movements
- D. Administer analgesics
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid sudden movements. Vertigo is a type of dizziness where a person feels like they're spinning or the world around them is spinning. Sudden movements can worsen vertigo symptoms. By avoiding sudden movements, the nurse can help reduce the patient's vertigo symptoms.
Avoiding noises (A) may help with other conditions like migraines, but it is not specifically helpful for vertigo. Encouraging fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not directly address vertigo symptoms. Administering analgesics (D) may help with pain but will not address the underlying cause of vertigo.
Therefore, choosing option C is the most appropriate action to include in the plan of care for reducing vertigo symptoms.
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When evaluating a client's response to fluid replacement therapy, the observation that indicates adequate tissue perfusion to vital organ is;
- A. Urinary output of 30 ml in an hour
- B. Central venous pressure reading of 2 cm H20
- C. Pulse rates of 120 and 110 in a 15- minute period
- D. Blood pressure readings of 50/30 and 70/40 mm Hg within 30 minutes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urinary output of 30 ml in an hour. Adequate tissue perfusion is best indicated by a sufficient urinary output, as it demonstrates proper kidney perfusion and function. A low urinary output may suggest inadequate perfusion.
Explanation for other choices:
B: Central venous pressure reading of 2 cm H20 is not a reliable indicator of tissue perfusion to vital organs.
C: Pulse rates alone are not enough to indicate tissue perfusion as they can be influenced by various factors.
D: Blood pressure readings alone may not accurately reflect tissue perfusion, especially in the context of fluid replacement therapy.
Which of the following are examples of common factors in a client that may influence assessment priorities?
- A. Diet and exercise program
- B. Standing in the community
- C. Ability to pay for services
- D. Developmental stage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diet and exercise program. This is because a client's diet and exercise program directly impact their physical health and well-being, making it an important factor to consider when determining assessment priorities. Understanding their dietary habits and level of physical activity can help identify potential health risks or areas for improvement.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the client's physical health and well-being, which are crucial factors in determining assessment priorities. Standing in the community (B) may influence social interactions but does not necessarily impact assessment priorities. Ability to pay for services (C) relates to financial considerations rather than health assessment priorities. Developmental stage (D) may be important for understanding the client's cognitive and emotional development, but it is not as directly relevant to assessment priorities as diet and exercise.
Antihistamines are used cautiously in older men with prostatic hypertrophy for which of the ff reasons?
- A. Because the clients may experience increased drowsiness
- B. Because these clients may experience difficulty voiding
- C. Because these clients face a greater risk of cardiac arrest
- D. Because these clients have a lower autoimmune response CARING FOR CLIENTS WITH AIDS
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Because these clients may experience difficulty voiding. Antihistamines can worsen urinary symptoms in men with prostatic hypertrophy by causing urinary retention. This is due to the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines, which can lead to decreased bladder contraction and difficulty in voiding. Increased drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of antihistamines but is not specific to older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice C, greater risk of cardiac arrest, is not directly related to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice D, lower autoimmune response in clients with AIDS, is unrelated to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy.
The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:
- A. pupil size, response to pain, motor responses
- B. Pupil size, verbal response, motor response
- C. Eye opening, verbal response, motor response
- D. Eye opening, response to pain, motor response J.E, is an 18-year old freshman admitted to the ICU following a motor vehicle accident in which he sustained multiple trauma including a ruptured spleen, myocardial contusion, fractured pelvis, and fractured right femur. He had a mild contusion, but is alert and oriented. His vital signs BP 120/80, pulse 84, respirations 12, and temperature 99 F orally.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses a patient's level of consciousness using these three factors. Eye opening measures arousal, verbal response assesses communication abilities, and motor response evaluates motor function. In the case of J.E., since he is alert and oriented, his eye opening is intact. His ability to communicate verbally and move his limbs appropriately would be crucial in determining his neurological status. Choices A and B are incorrect as they do not include the necessary assessment factor of eye opening. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "response to pain" instead of verbal response, which is a key component of the Glasgow Coma Scale.
Which of the ff instructions should a nurse give a client with Hodgkin’s disease who is at risk of impaired skin integrity? Choose all that apply
- A. Trim nails short
- B. Keep the neck in midline
- C. Use mild soap
- D. Support and protect bony prominences
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Keeping the neck in midline helps prevent compression of the lymphatic vessels in the neck, reducing the risk of impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease.
Step 2: This position also helps maintain proper blood flow and lymphatic drainage in the neck area.
Step 3: Trimming nails short, using mild soap, and supporting bony prominences are not directly related to preventing impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease.
Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly addresses the specific risk factor of impaired skin integrity in Hodgkin's disease, while the other choices are not as relevant to this particular concern.