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Which of the ff. would the nurse explain to a patient is the main purpose of a hearing aid?
- A. Amplify background noise
- B. Amplify musical sounds
- C. Occlude the ear
- D. Improve ability to hear
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Improve ability to hear. A hearing aid is designed to improve a person's ability to hear by amplifying sound. This helps individuals with hearing loss to better understand speech and sounds in their environment.
A: Amplifying background noise is not the main purpose of a hearing aid. It may actually hinder the user's ability to focus on important sounds.
B: Amplifying musical sounds is not the primary function of a hearing aid. The main focus is on improving speech understanding.
C: Occluding the ear is not the purpose of a hearing aid. It is meant to enhance hearing, not block sound.
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A hospitalized client has the following blood lab values: WBC 3,000/ul, RBC 5.0 (X 106), platelets 300, 000, what would be a priority nursing intervention?
- A. Preventing infection
- B. Alleviating pain
- C. Controlling infection
- D. Monitoring blood transfusion reactions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing infection. With a low WBC count of 3,000/ul, the client is at high risk for infection due to compromised immune function. Priority is to prevent infection by implementing strict infection control measures, such as hand hygiene, sterile techniques, and isolation precautions. Alleviating pain (B) would be important but not the priority in this case. Controlling infection (C) is similar to preventing infection and would be a secondary intervention. Monitoring blood transfusion reactions (D) is not relevant to the client's current lab values.
Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Observe the patient for abnormal bleeding.
- B. Notify the physician and expect an order to increase the warfarin dose.
- C. Advise the patient to double today’s dose of warfarin.
- D. Administer Vit. K per protocol.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing the patient for abnormal bleeding is an appropriate action to monitor for potential complications of warfarin therapy. This aligns with the nursing role in assessing and monitoring patient responses to treatment.
B is incorrect as increasing warfarin dose without physician order can lead to adverse effects. C is incorrect as altering the dose without medical advice can be dangerous. D is incorrect as administering Vitamin K would counteract the effects of warfarin, which is used to prevent blood clotting.
Which of the ff is the primary sign of breast cancer?
- A. A bloody discharge from the nipple
- B. A retraction of the nipple
- C. A dimpling of the skin over the lesion
- D. A painless mass in the breast CLIENT IN BIOLOGICAL CRISIS MANAGEMENT of PATIENTS with COMPLICATIONS from HEART DISEASE
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A painless mass in the breast. This is the primary sign of breast cancer because most breast cancers present as painless lumps or masses. This is due to the abnormal growth of cells forming a tumor. Other choices (A, B, C) are also signs of breast cancer, but they are not as common or primary as the presence of a painless mass. A bloody discharge from the nipple (A) can be a sign of a benign condition or cancer, but it is not the most common presentation. Nipple retraction (B) and dimpling of the skin over the lesion (C) can also be signs of breast cancer, but they usually occur in later stages of the disease. Therefore, the presence of a painless mass in the breast is the primary sign that should raise suspicion for breast cancer.
Mrs. Silang, a 52-year old female, is experiencing advanced hepatic cirrhosis now complicated by hepatic encephalopathy. She is confused, restless, and demonstrating asterixis. The nurse has formulated the nursing diagnosis: Altered thought processes related to which of the following?
- A. massive ascites formation
- B. fluid volume excess
- C. increased serum ammonia levels
- D. altered clotting mechanism
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: increased serum ammonia levels. In hepatic encephalopathy, the liver is unable to metabolize ammonia, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream, causing altered thought processes. This results in confusion and asterixis. Massive ascites formation (choice A) is related to fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity, not directly linked to altered thought processes. Fluid volume excess (choice B) is a general fluid imbalance issue, not specific to hepatic encephalopathy. Altered clotting mechanism (choice D) is more associated with hepatic dysfunction leading to impaired clotting factors, not directly linked to altered thought processes.
Clients with myastherda gravis, Guillain - Barre Syndrome or amyothrophic sclerosis experience:
- A. Progressive deterioration until death
- B. Deficiencies of essential neurotransmitter
- C. Increased risk of respiratory complications
- D. Involuntary twitching of small muscle group
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of respiratory complications. Clients with myasthenia gravis, Guillain-Barre Syndrome, or amyotrophic lateral sclerosis all experience muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, leading to a higher risk of respiratory complications such as difficulty breathing or respiratory failure. This is due to the involvement of the neuromuscular system in these conditions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly correlate with the respiratory complications commonly seen in these specific neuromuscular disorders.