basic geriatric nursing 6th edition test bank Related

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Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of delirium in older adults?

  • A. It is caused by an acute inflammatory response to infection.
  • B. It results from reversible metabolic changes, such as electrolyte imbalances.
  • C. It is primarily related to neurodegeneration in the brain.
  • D. It is caused by chronic stress responses and cortisol overproduction.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delirium in older adults results from reversible metabolic changes, such as electrolyte imbalances. Delirium is a multifactorial condition often triggered by physiological imbalances, including electrolyte disturbances. These imbalances can disrupt normal brain function, leading to confusion and cognitive impairment. Other choices are incorrect: A is more typical of sepsis, C is more associated with conditions like dementia, and D is not a primary cause of delirium.