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Which of the following combines the best treatments for postpartum blues?
- A. Antidepressants, sleep, crisis intervention
- B. Rest, support, compassion
- C. Mother-baby bonding session, family education, antidepressants
- D. Analgesics for post-delivery pain, rest, longer hospital stay
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Antidepressants have no use in postpartum blues (A, C). Rest, support, and compassion (B) are the main interventions for this self-limiting condition, unlike analgesics or extended hospital stays (D).
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A 19-year-old client is admitted for the second time in 9 months and is acutely psychotic with a diagnosis of undifferentiated schizophrenia. The client sits alone rubbing her arms and smiling. She tells the nurse her thoughts cause earthquakes and that the world is burning. The nurse assesses the primary deficit associated with the client's condition as:
- A. Altered mood states
- B. Disturbed thinking
- C. Social isolation
- D. Poor impulse control
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disturbed thinking. This is because the client's belief that her thoughts cause earthquakes and the world is burning indicates a break from reality, a hallmark of psychosis in schizophrenia. This demonstrates disorganized and illogical thinking, a key symptom of disturbed thinking. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Altered mood states typically refer to emotional disturbances, which are not the primary deficit in this scenario; C) Social isolation is a consequence of the client's symptoms but not the primary deficit; D) Poor impulse control is not the primary deficit in this case as the client's behavior is more indicative of disorganized thinking.
The nurse is explaining to the family of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia that the disorder is considered to have neurobiological origins. When the patient's mother asks, 'What part of the brain is dysfunctional?' the nurse should reply, 'Research has implicated the:
- A. medulla and cortex.'
- B. cerebellum and cerebrum.'
- C. hypothalamus and medulla.'
- D. prefrontal and limbic cortices.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: prefrontal and limbic cortices. The prefrontal cortex is involved in decision-making, problem-solving, and social behavior, functions that are often impaired in schizophrenia. The limbic cortex is responsible for emotions and memory, both of which are affected in schizophrenia. Research has shown abnormalities in these brain regions in individuals with schizophrenia, supporting the neurobiological origins of the disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically address the brain regions known to be involved in schizophrenia.
A disorder that interrupts normal sleep patterns and is characterized by repeated, brief jerks of the arms and legs that occur every 20 to 60 seconds during the beginning of sleep is called:
- A. Insomnia.
- B. Narcolepsy.
- C. Hypersomnia.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: None of the above. The disorder described in the question is Periodic Limb Movement Disorder (PLMD), not any of the options provided. PLMD involves involuntary movements during sleep, which are different from the symptoms of insomnia, narcolepsy, or hypersomnia. Insomnia is difficulty falling or staying asleep, narcolepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, and hypersomnia is excessive daytime sleepiness despite getting enough sleep. Therefore, the correct answer is D as none of the provided options accurately describe the specific disorder mentioned in the question.
A 75-year-old patient comes to the clinic reporting frequent headaches. As the nurse begins the interaction, which action is most important?
- A. Complete a neurological assessment
- B. Determine whether the patient can hear as the nurse speaks
- C. Suggest that the patient lie down in a darkened room for a few minutes
- D. Administer medication to relieve the patient's pain before continuing the assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Before proceeding with any further assessment, the nurse should assess the patients ability to hear questions. Impaired hearing could lead to inaccurate answers.
A 76-year-old is regressed, indifferent, and responds to others only when they initiate an interaction. What form of group therapy would be most useful to promote resocialization?
- A. Remotivation
- B. Activity group
- C. Psychotherapy
- D. Reminiscence (life review)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Remotivation therapy helps to resocialize regressed and apathetic patients by focusing on a single topic, creating a bridge to reality as group members talk about the world in which they live and work and hobbies related to the topic. Group leaders give members acceptance and appreciation. Group psychotherapy would not be effective for this patient. An activity group does not address the patients problem.